Takshzila

Circular Arrangement (P&C)

ankur@takshzilabeta.com — Wed, 09 Mar 2011 08:43:01 +0000

Arranging people around a circular table.

a subtopic of Permutation and Combination for exams like CAT/GMAT/XAT

Grammar Video Playlist

ankur@takshzilabeta.com — Wed, 09 Mar 2011 08:05:13 +0000

Grammar for CAT/XAT/GMAT and other competitive Tests.

1. Parts of Speech.

Massey introduces the concept and goes on to elaborate each component . More examples and detailed out lesson here

3 Videos.

Remember a video can always be paused and you can always go back for a repeat .

XAT 2009 Original Paper

nishant — Fri, 24 Dec 2010 15:41:39 +0000

SECTION A : VERBAL AND LOGICAL ABILITY

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 1 through 2 that follow.

In Hume’s eyes productive labour was the greatest asset of a country, and foreign trade was valuable because it enabled a nation to use more and more varied labour than would otherwise be possible. But commerce was of mutual advantage to the nations involved, not a benefit to one and injury to other. “The increase of riches and commerce in any one nation,” added Hume, “instead of hurting, commonly, promotes the riches and commerce of all its neighbours.” “The emulation in rival nations serves . . . to keep industry alive in all of them.”

1. The importance of foreign trade, in eyes of Hume, was due to that:

A. it allowed the employment of surplus labour in a nation.

B. it allowed the diversion of labour to export oriented industries.

C. it allowed the deeper specialisation of the same labour force.

D. it allowed varied application of labour force in a nation.

E. it allowed application of varied labour force in a nation.

2. As per Hume, free trade between nations was made advantageous by the outcome of:

A. mutual increase in riches and commerce.

B. emulation of industrial activity by different nations.

C. affable promotion of industrial activity among nations.

D. productive employment of labour in different nations.

E. higher wages received by labour in exporting nations.

Questions (3-5): Identify the correct sentences from the options given below.

3. A. When kite flying you can always tell when you lose a kite because the string feels loose.

B. When kite flying you can always tell when you loose a kite because the string feels lose.

C. When kite flying you can always tell when you loose a kite because the string feels loose.

D. While flying a kite you can always tell when you lose a kite because the string feels lose.

E. While flying a kite, you can always tell when you lost a kite when the string felt lose.

4. A. If XAT aspirants had not taken so long checking each question before attempting the next question they might not have run out of time.

B. If XAT aspirants had taken so long checking each question before attempting the next question they might not have run out of time.

C. Had XAT aspirants had not took so long checking every question before attempting the next question they might not have run out of time.

D. If XAT aspirants had took so long checking each question before attempting the next question they might not have run out of time.

E. Had XAT aspirants not took so long checking all question before attempting the next question they might not have run out of time.

5. A. The news channel agreed to report that next Sunday the couple had been married for 10 years.

B. The news channel agreed to report that next Sunday the couple will have been married for 10 years.

C. The news channel agreed to report that next Sunday the couple will be married for 10 years.

D. The news channel agreed to report that next Sunday the couple could have been married for 10 years.

E. The news channel agreed to report that next Sunday the couple has been married since 10 years.

For questions 6 & 7 go through the following passage.

The Yoga system is divided into two principal parts—Hatha and Raja Yoga. Hatha Yoga deals principally with the physiological part of man with a view to establish his health and train his will. The processes prescribed to arrive at this end are so difficult that only a few resolute souls go through all the stages of its practice. Many have failed and some have died in the attempt. It is therefore strongly denounced by all the philosophers. The most illustrious Shankaracharya has remarked in his treatise called Aparokshanubhuti that “the system of Hatha Yoga was intended for those whose wordly desires are not pacified or uprooted.”

6. Which one of the following, if true, most substantially strengthens the idea given in the passage?

A. The percentage of people in a given ashram practicing Raja Yoga is more than the percentage of people practising Hatha Yoga.

B. The number of people in a given ashram practicing Raja Yoga is more than the number of people practising Hatha Yoga.

C. The number of Yoga schools teaching Raja Yoga is more than the number of Yoga schools teaching Hatha Yoga.

D. The number of teachers teaching Raja Yoga is more than the number of teachers teaching Hatha Yoga.

E. The percentage of students who have successfully learnt Raja Yoga is more than the percentage of students who have successfully learnt Hatha Yoga.

7. Which of the following option best reflects Shankaracharya’s comments on Hatha Yoga?

A. Hatha Yoga is for those whose wordly desires are not placated.

B. Hatha Yoga has desastrous consequences for Yoga practitioners.

C. Practised under the guidance of experts, Hatha Yoga is better than Raja Yoga for some people.

D. Raja Yoga gives better results and in a shorter time period for most people, and therefore it should be encouraged.

E. Hatha Yoga is ill-suited for people with strong worldly desires.

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the questions 8 through 10 that follow.

Number of words in this passage : 329

The greens’ success has clear policy implications, especially on issues of nuclear power, ecological tax reform, and citizenship rights. But success also has implications for parties themselves. Greens have always faced a unique ‘strategic conundrum’ arising from their unique beliefs and movement roots. Put simply, how can they reconcile their radical alternative politics with participation in mainstream or ‘grey’ parliamentary and government structures? Throughout the 1990s most parties shed their radical cloth in an attempt to capture votes, even at the expense of party unity and purity. Most were rewarded with electoral success well beyond what had been imaginable in the 1980s. The price to pay has been tortured internal debates about strategy, and new questions about green party identity and purpose. Today the key questions facing green parties revolve around not whether to embrace power, but what to do with it. More especially, green parties face three new challenges in the new millennium: first, how to carve out a policy niche as established parties and governments become wiser to green demands, and as green concerns themselves appear more mainstream. Second, how to take green ideas beyond the confines of rich industrialised states into Eastern Europe and the developing world where green parties remain marginal and environmental problems acute. Third, how to ensure that the broader role of green parties–as consciousness raisers, agitators, conscience of parliament and politics– is not sacrificed on the altar of electoral success. Green parties have come a long way since their emergence and development in the 1970s and 1980s. They have become established players able to shape party competition, government formation, and government policy. But this very ‘establishment’ carries risks for a party whose core values and identities depend mightily on their ability to challenge the conventional order, to agitate and to annoy. For most green parties, the greatest fear is not electoral decline so much as the prospect of becoming a party with parliamentary platform, ministerial voice, but nothing new to say.

8. Which out of the following is closest in meaning to the first of three challenges mentioned in the paragraph?

A. Niche of green parties is being eroded by mainstream parties.

B. Green parties are finding it difficult to find new strategy.

C. Green parties have become stronger over a period of time.

D. Some green parties are becoming grey.

E. Non green parties are becoming less relevant than green parties.

9. Which of the following is the most important point that author highlights?

A. Challenges before green parties to change their strategy from green activism to green governance.

B. How should green parties win confidence and support of governments?

C. Transformation of green parties in recent decades.

D. Green movement is not strong in developing countries.

E. Non green parties are becoming less relevant than green parties.

10. How best can mainstream political parties, in India, keep green parties at bay?

A. By imposing green tax.

B. By allowing carbon trading.

C. By including green agenda in their governance.

D. By hiring Al Gore, the Nobel prize winner, as an ambassador.

E. By not letting green parties fight elections.

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the questions 11 through 13 that follow.

Number of words in this passage : 302

The Sapir–Whorf hypothesis, also known as the linguistic relativity hypothesis, refers to the proposal that the particular language one speaks influences the way one thinks about reality. The linguistic relativity hypothesis focuses on structural differences among natural languages such as Hopi, Chinese, and English, and asks whether the classifications of reality implicit in such structures affect our thinking about reality. Analytically, linguistic relativity as an issue stands between two others: a semiotic-level concern with how speaking any natural language whatsoever might influence the general potential for human thinking (i.e., the general role of natural language in the evolution or development of human intellectual functioning), and functional- or discourse-level concern with how using any given language code in a particular way might influence thinking (i.e., the impact of special discursive practices such as schooling and literacy on formal thought). Although analytically distinct, the three issues are intimately related in both theory and practice. For example, claims bout linguistic relativity depend on understanding the general psychological mechanisms linking language to thinking, and on understanding the diverse uses of speech in discourse to accomplish acts of descriptive reference. Hence, the relation of particular linguistic structures to patterns of thinking forms only one part of the broader array of questions about the significance of language for thought. Proposals of linguistic relativity necessarily develop two linked claims among the key terms of the hypothesis (i.e., language, thought, and reality). First, languages differ significantly in their interpretations of experienced reality–both what they select for representation and how they arrange it. Second, language interpretations have influences on thought about reality more generally–whether at the individual or cultural level. Claims for linguistic relativity thus require both articulating the contrasting interpretations of reality latent in the structures of different languages, and assessing their broader influences on, or relationships to, the cognitive interpretation of reality.

11. Which of the following conclusions can be derived based on Sapir-Whorf hypothesis?

A. Americans and Indians would have similar intelligence.

B. South Indians and North Indians would have similar intelligence.

C. Those with same intelligence would speak the same language.

D. Those with similar intelligence may speak the same language.

E. Structure of language does not affect cognition.

12. If Sapir-Whorf hypothesis were to be true, which of the following conclusions would logically follow?

1. To develop vernacular languages, government should promote public debates and discourses.

2. Promote vernacular languages as medium of instruction in school.

3. Cognitive and cultural realities are related.

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1and 2 E. 1, 2 and 3

13. Which of the following proverbs may be false, if above passage were to be right?

1. If speech is silver, silence is gold.

2. When you have spoken a word, it reigns over you. When it is unspoken you reign over it.

3. Speech of yourself ought to be seldom and well chosen.

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 only D. 1 only E. 1, 2 and 3

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the questions 14 through 17 that follow.

Number of words in this passage : 281

Demography of organisations, also called population ecology is an interesting field. It proposes that organisational mortality processes depend upon the age and size of the organisation, as well as on characteristics of populations and environments. Moreover, there is evidence of an imprinting process – meaning that environmental conditions at certain early phases in an organisation’s development have long-term consequences. In particular, organisations subject to intense competition have elevated mortality hazards at all ages. A central theme is structural inertia, the tendency for organisations to respond slowly relative to the speed of environmental change. A central argument holds that the inertia derives from the very characteristics that make organisations favoured actors in modern society in terms of reliability and (formal) accountability. It follows that changes in an organisation’s core features are disruptive and increase mortality hazards, at least in the short-run. Research on this subject tends to support this view. The concept of niche provides a framework for relating environmental variations and competition to population dynamics and segmentation. Much empirical work examines the niches of organisational populations in terms of dimensions of social, political, and economic environments. Most research in this field builds on theories of resource partition and density dependence. Resource-partitioning theory concerns the relationship between increasing market concentration and increasing proliferation of specialists in mature industries. The key implication of this theory concerns the effects of concentration on the viability of specialist organisations (those that seek to exploit a narrow range of resources). The theory of density-dependent organisational evolution synthesizes ecological and institutional processes. It holds that growth in the number of organisations in a population (density) drives processes of social legitimatisation and competition that, in turn, shape the vital rates.

14. Most top-notch business consultants recommend changing the entire configuration of an organisation’s strategy, structure and systems. If he ideas contained in the passage are agreed to, then such a recommendation:

A. tends to rejuvenate the organisation.

B. tends to make the organisation more aligned to the external environment.

C. tends to increase the competitiveness of the organisation by redefining its core competence.

D. tends to increase the vulnerability of the organisation.

E. tends to make the organisation industry leader by reformulating its niche.

15. Consider the following: “Tata Steel, one of the biggest steel makers in the world, was born in Jamshedpur.” If above passage is true, then it can be concluded that the location of Tata Steel has been one of the reasons for its success.

1. The conclusion is false.

2. This is a farfetched conclusion.

3. This is a valid conclusion.

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 2 E. 2 and 3

16. “Tata Steel, one of the biggest steel makers in the world, was born in Jamshedpur. The very success of Tata Steel could lead to its failure in the future and hence the challenge for Tata Steel is to recognise its strengths that made it successful in the initial conditions and stick to them.”

1. This is a valid conclusion.

2. The conclusion is contrary to the ideas described in the passage.

3. The conclusion is internally contradictory.

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 2 E. 2 and 3

17. Recently it was reported that the Indian textile sector was not doing well. If the ideas contained in the passage are agreed to, then which of the following could be the possible reason(s)?

1. All Indian firms are as old as international firms.

2. Indian textile firms are dispersed all over the country, with most of them also having international presence.

3. Textile firms in India were subjected to trade union activity in the period from 1960s to 1980s.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 and 2 E. 1, 2 and 3

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the questions 18 and 19.

Since power is itself a value, forms of influence which include power in their scope are usually themselves forms of power. The king’s mistress, though she has only influence, not power, over the king, may have power over his subjects to the degree of that influence. Forms of influence based on power are themselves forms of power only if the scope of the influence is included within that of the power in question. The king may exercise influence over standards of morality, say, by virtue of his power position, but he does not necessarily exercise power over morality.

18. Which combination of following statements best summarises the idea expressed in the paragraph?

1. Strength of an influence determines its power.

2. Influence always contributes power to the wielder of influence beyond the scope of influence.

3. Proximity to authority is itself a source of power.

4. Forms of influence are power only if they can influence behaviour.

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 1,4 D. 1, 3, 4 E. 1, 2, 4

19. Which of the following is similar to the ideas expressed in the paragraph?

A. A king can influence what dramas are enacted by artists.

B. A king can influence who acts in dramas in his kingdom.

C. A king can indicate the appropriateness of dramas enacted.

D. A king can influence the prices charged from drama groups by actors.

E. A king can influence on what drama audience spend their money.

Questions 20-33: Go through the questions below and answer them.

20. As man casts off worn-out garments and puts on others that are new, similarly the embodied soul, casting off worn-out bodies, enters into others, which are new.

Of the following, which one best typifies the argument?

A. Inductive generalization

B. Predictive argument

C. Argument from authority

D. Causal argument

E. Argument from analogy

21. All the parliamentarians whom the reporter interviewed told that they had voted as per their conscience. Therefore, probably all the parliamentarians voted as per their conscience. This argument is an example of:

A. Inductive generalization

B. Predictive argument

C. Generalization based on authority

D. Deduction generalization

E. Argument from analogy

22. Nature lovers are attracted to forests and nature parks. Just look at the number of people visiting the Corbett national park.

Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning least dissimilar to the one exhibited in the argument above?

A. Defence personnel who are trained in extremely rigorous procedures often end up as dysfunctional members of the society. Hence if an officer is not trained rigorously, such an officer is more likely to be useful to the society.

B. This machinery has increased the work efficiency of the workers. As a result, some of these workers are surplus to the company.

C. Fleas must thrive in a warm environment. During warm weather my dog suffers from fleas more so than during cooler weather.

D. Cigarette smoking is known to cause lung cancer in some people. However, most victims of lung cancer live in regions where smoking is uncommon.

E. Alcoholics and teetotallers usually appear at the same restaurant at the same time of the day. Therefore, alcoholics and teetotallers must be hungry at the same time.

23. In this era of global capital flows, so much money is now flowing throughout the world that no single country can fight the problem of inflation effectively by tightening its monetary policy.

If the above is true, which of the following could be most logically concluded?

A. Changes in cash reserve ratio by Reserve Bank of India will control the rate inflation in India.

B. Countries’ finance ministries have sufficient control over their respective economies.

C. Countries’ finance ministries have insufficient control over their respective economies.

D. Inflation does not matter as long as incomes increase.

E. Citizens should limit their consumption which will reduce the demand for products, thus reducing inflation.

24. Many entrepreneurs try to control the composition of their boards of directors, but more experienced entrepreneurs tend to share control, inviting participation from institutional investors and outside directors.

Which option best summarizes the idea that might be guiding experienced entrepreneurs’ behaviour?

A. The experienced entrepreneurs expect experienced directors to monitor the performance of the enterprise and be a sounding board.

B. The experienced entrepreneurs expect the institutional investors to support the opinion of entrepreneurs on all major decisions.

C. The experienced entrepreneurs expect the institutional investors and outside directors to agree to higher remuneration for the board members.

D. Experienced entrepreneurs expect the experienced directors to engage in day-to-day management of the company.

E. The more the number of influential people on board, the easier it is to raise finances.

25. “There is nothing so stupid as an educated man, if you can get him off the thing he was educated in.”

Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the author’s contention?

A. True education implies a well-rounded exposure to major subjects.

B. An educated man will not discuss things which he does not understand.

C. The cost of a general education has led to the unfortunate fact that a person’s education is confined to one field.

D. Stupidity, like intelligence, is relative and therefore depends on the intelligence of the persons’ peers.

E. Education is one of the main causes of people recognizing their capabilities and developing them further.

26. Ram, an economist, and Ramesh, an atrologer, had a debate. Ram said “Astrology does not work. It just cannot predict.” “It can predict better than your subject,” rebutted Ramesh.

The evidence that best resolves the above debate will be:

A. Conduct a survey among scientists asking which one of the two should be considered as a science.

B. Compare past performance of astrologers and economists in terms of number of predictions which have come true.

C. Conduct a survey among economists asking their opinion regarding the ability of economic theory to predict economic phenomena.

D. Conduct an experiment where both astrologers and economists would be asked to predict the future. Compare the number of predictions that come true.

E. Conduct an experiment where both astrologers and economists would be asked to predict the future. Compare the percentage of predictions that come true.

27. Which of the following sentences draws a metaphor?

A. Karl Marx argued that the interests of two classes – the proletariat and the bourgeois – are always in conflict and irreconcilable.

B. Karl Marx labelled the capitalist a parasite on the back of labour because the whole value or produce created by the labouring man was expropriated by the capitalist.

C. Weber held that the protestant ethic was responsible for the rise of capitalism in medieval Europe.

D. Galbraith argued for a better balance between private affluence and public poverty, including measures to protect the environment against the excesses of private companies.

E. Schumpeter argued that changes in economy are brought about by creative destruction.

28. Which sentence includes an example of personification?

A. Banjaras of Rajasthan are the human equivalent of an endangered species and have no defence against the encroachment of farmers onto their ancestral lands.

B. Take airline pilots for example; they do not need to be graduates to qualify for this job and most pilots are on a salary Rs.300,000 per month or more.

C. Recent research provided stark evidence that in education money still plays an important role; it was found that children from poor households could not perform as well as children from rich households.

D. Girls in the family should have a share in the ancestral property as a matter of right whether the will includes it explicity or not.

E. Democracy does not help the common citizen and it ultimately degenerates into an oligarchy.

29. Which sentence suffers most from hyperbole?

A. Most collectors of coins would give the Earth to own one of the copper coins issued byMohammad Bin Tughlaq.

B. It is thought that eating raw tomatoes would greatly reduce the risk of cancer, but tomato sauce can have a greater effect since it is made from many raw tomatoes.

C. Cricket has a great following in India, but the twenty-twenty format took the game to every nook and corner of the world.

D. We face an imminent drinking water crisis in India as the population growth is accompanied by a general decrease in rainfall.

E. Nuclear fusion has the potential to solve the energy crisis of not only our country, but that of the entire world.

30. Which sentence includes a euphemism?

A. Cell phone network signals are weak in the hilly regions.

B. Bottled water is reputed to be safe for drinking under all circumstances.

C. A cemetery is a place where people are buried when they pass away.

D. It is stupid to cry over spilt milk.

E. Criminal court arbitrates between the parties to the case.

31. Which of the following contains a non-sequitur?

A. If statisticians are made judges, they will accept or reject arguments based on probability analyses.

B. Public trust in politicians is at an all time low and we can’t insist that the politicians go back to school.

C. Before preparing the annual budget, the CEO of XYZ Steel Limited takes the opinions of all the stakeholders.

D. In cricket, the batting average does not always reflect a batman’s ability because it does not reflect how many wins he was instrumental for.

E. Ordinary citizens do not have sufficient grasp of economic indicators to validate published inflation data.

32. Recommence is to suspend as: nonchalant is to:

A. carefree B. beleaguered C. tirade D. agreement E. disagreement

33. Which sentence includes an oxymoron?

A. On weekends, we ate and drank a lot.

B. Meena corrected me by pointing out that she wanted pizza instead of burger.

C. Media reported the attack on media-persons.

D. He loved his aunt but found her kindness suffocating.

E. One should not compare apples and oranges.

From questions 34 to 35, read the sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

34. 1. The moral will arise when, for the reasons we saw earlier, this negation has to be negated; the individual moral will understands that it is the existence of the universal will, which is therefore internal to it.

2. This constitutes a negation, because the individual will is understood not to be the existence of the universal will.

3. This says that in abstract right, as we have just seen, the individual will takes its freedom (the universal will that has being in itself) to exist independent of (that is, in opposition to) itself and its particular contents.

4. Rather, the universal will is thought to exist outside any individual will, in the contracts that bind a number of property-owing wills together, and in the punishments that enforce breaches of those contracts.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B, 3, 2, 4, 1 C. 3, 1, 2, 4 D. 1, 3, 2, 4 E. 4, 3, 2, 1

35. 1. In the concept, universality, particularity, and individuality are understood as being immediately identical to each other.

2. As immediately identical, these “moments of the concept” cannot be separated.

3. This means that they must be thought of as a single unity, that none of three can be understood apart from the others, since in the concept their identity is posited, each of its moments can only be grasped immediately on the basis of and together with the others.

4. The interrelation of universality, particularity, and individuality is otherwise in judgement.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 3, 2, 4, 1 C. 4, 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 3, 1, 4 E. 2, 3, 4, 1

SECTION B: DATA INTERPRETATION AND QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

36. In an examination there are 30 question. 1 mark is given for each correct answer and 0.25 is deducted for every incorrect answer. Ankur attempted all the questions and scored 13.75. How many incorrect answers did he have?

A. 10 B, 11 C. 12 D. 15 E. None of the above

37. A salesman sells two kinds of trousers: cotton and woollen. A pair of cotton trousers is sold at 30% profit and a pair of woollen trousers is sold at 50% profit. The salesman has calculated that if he sells 100% more woollen trousers than cotton trousers, his overall profit will be 45%. However he ends up selling 50% more cotton trousers than woollen trousers. What will be his overall profit?

A. 37.5% B, 40% C. 41% D. 42.33% E. None of the above

Question Nos. 38-39 are followed by two statements labelled as I and II. You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from options given below:

A. If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B. If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

C. If statement I and statement II together are sufficient but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question.

D. If either Statement I or Statement II are insufficient to answer the question.

E. Both statements I and statement II are insufficient to answer the question.

38. For each rupee in monthly advertising expenditure, KUMAR & Co. experiences a Rs.6 increase in sales. How much KUMAR & Co. has to spend on advertising to attain Rs.1000000 in sales revenue for the month?

I. Without advertising KUMAR & Co. earns Rs.200000 sales revenue per month.

II. When KUMAR & Co. spends Rs.15000 on advertising, it earns Rs.290000 as sales revenue.

39. Geetanjali Express, which is 250 metre long when moving from Howrah to Tatanagar crosses Subarnarekha bridge in 30 seconds. What is the speed of Geetanjali Express?

I. Bombay Mail, which runs at 60 km/hour crosses the Subarnarekha bridge in 30 seconds.

II. Bombay Mail, when running at 90 km/hour crosses a lamp post in 10 seconds.

40. Rajesh walks to and fro to a shopping mall. He spends 30 minutes shopping. If he walks at speed of 10 km an hour, he returns to home at 19.00 hours. If he walks at 15 km an hour, he returns to home at 18.30 hours. How fast must he walk in order to return home at 18.15 hours?

A. 17 km/hour B. 17.5 km/hour C. 18 km/hour’ D. 19 km/hour E. None of the above.

41. A shop sells two kinds of rolls – egg roll and mutton roll. Onion, tomato, carrot, chilli sauce and tomato sauce are the additional ingredients. You can have any combination of additional ingredients, or have standard rolls without any additional ingredients subject to the following constraints:

(a) You can have tomato sauce if you have an egg roll, but not if you have a mutton roll.

(b) If you have onion or tomato or both you can have chilli sauce, but not otherwise.

How many different rolls can be ordered according to these rules?

A. 21 B. 33 C. 40 D. 42 E. None of the above

42. Given five points A = (7, 4), B = (–10, 0), C = (–10, 3), D = (0, 10) and E = (7, 7). Every second all the points move by halving their abscissas and by doubling their ordinates. This process continues for 500 years. After 500 years, which two points are closest?

A. A and B B. B and C C. A and E D. D and E E. A and C

Instructions: Answer the question no.43 and 44 on the basis of the data given in the chart.

The chart above gives per unit selling prices and costs in rupees of 11 items prepared by a sweetshop. Margins are calculated on percentage basis. Based on the chart above, answer the questions that follow:

43. Which of the following conclusions can be made?

A. Producer’s margin for panir kachouri is less than retailer’s margin.

B. Producer’s margin for chicken pizza is more than retailer’s margin.

C. Producer’s margin for fish spring roll is more than retailer’s margin.

D. Producer’s and retailer’s margin are highest for panir kachouri alone.

E. Retailer made losses in a few products.

44. Which of the following conclusion can be drawn from diagram above?

A. Retailers’ selling price for mistisukh was more than producer’s selling price for chicken titbit.

B. Difference between retailer’s selling price and producer’s selling price for fish kachouri was more than that of cream roll.

C. There are three types of margins for all items.

D. Of all the margins, both for retailer and producer, producer’s margin for chicken pizza was the maximum.

E. The three lines that connect different points, in the diagram above are superfluous.

45. Mungeri Lal has two investment plans – A and B, to choose from. Plan A offers interest of 10% compounded annually while plan B offers simple interest of 12% per annum. Till how many years is plan B a better investment?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7

47. Two teams Arrogant and Overconfident are participating in a cricket tournament. The odds that team Arrogant will be champion is 5 to 3, and the odds that team Overconfident will be the champion is 1 to 4. What are the odds that either team Arrogant or team Overconfident will become the champion?

A. 3 to 2 B. 5 to 2 C. 6 to 1 D. 7 to 1 E. 9 to 1

Answer the questions 48 to 50 on the basis of the data given in the table.

A cake chain manufactures two types of products – ‘cakes/pastries/gateaux’ and savouries. The chain was concerned about high wastage (in terms of leftover) and wanted to reduce it. Table 1 provides information about sales, costs and wastage for both products.

Table 1: Revenue Statement

48. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) right?

1. The worth of leftover for cakes/pastries/gateaux increased from 1993 to 2004.

2. The worth of leftover for cakes/pastries/gateaux, kept on fluctuating, many a times between 1993 and 2004.

3. The worth of leftover for savouries and cakes/pastries/gateaux was highest in 2004.

4. The worth of leftover for savouries kept on fluctuating, many a times, between 1993 and 2004.

Choose the right combination from the following:

A. 1 and 4 B. 3 and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 3 only E. 2 and 3

49. Maximum decline in amount of leftover of cakes/pastries/gateaux occurred in the year:

A. From 1997 to 1998

B. From 1995 to 1996

C. From 1998 to 1999

D. There was always an increase in worth of leftover.

E. Cannot be calculated from the data.

50. If profit = sales – cost – leftover, in which year did the cake chain was in losses?

1. 1993 2. 1997 3. 1998 4. 2000

Choose the right option:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 3, 4 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3 E. It was always in profit.

51. Let a and b be the roots of the quadratic equation x² + 3x – 1 = 0

If P_n = aⁿ + bⁿ for n ≥ 0, then, for n ≥ 2, P_n =

A. 3P_n–1 + P_n–2B. 3P_n–1 – P_n–2C. –P_n–1 + 3P_n–2D. P_n–1 + 3P_n–2E. None of the above

52. A rural child specialist has to determine the weight of five children of different ages. He knows from his past experience that each of the children would weigh less than 30 Kg and each of them would have different weights. Unfortunately, the scale available in the village can measure weight only over 30 kg. The doctor decides to weigh the children in pairs. However his new assistant weighted the children without noting down the names. The weights were: 35, 36, 37, 39, 40, 41, 42, 45, 46 and 47 kg. The weight of the lightest child is:

A. 15 kg. B. 16 kg. C. 17 kg. D. 18 kg. E. 20 kg.

53. Sangeetha and Swathi bought two wristwatches from Jamshedpur Electronics at 11.40 A.M. IST. After purchasing they found that when 60 minutes elapses on a correct clock (IST), Sangeeta’s wristwatch registers 62 minutes whereas Swati’s wristwatch registers 56 minutes. Later in the day Sangeeta’s wristwatch reads 10 P.M., then the time on Swati’s wristwatch is:

A. 8:40 PM B. 9:00 PM C. 9:20 PM D. 8:40 PM E. CBD

54. F(x) is a fourth order polynomial with integer coefficients and with no common factor. The roots of F(x) are –2, –1, 1, 2. If p is a prime number greater than 97, then the largest integer that divides F(p) for all values of p is:

A. 72 B. 120 C. 240 D. 360 E. None of the above

Instructions: Consider the information given below for questions 55 and 56.

In the diagram below, the seven letters correspond to seven unique digits chosen from 0 to 9. The relationship among the digits is such that:

55. The value of A is:

A. 0 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 E. None of the above

56. The sum of digits which are not used is:

A. 8 B. 10 C. 14 D. 15 E. None of the above

59. ABCD is a square with sides of length 10 units. OCD is an isosceles triangle with base CD.OC cuts AB at point Q and OD cuts AB at point P. The area of trapezoid PQCD is 80 square units. The altitude from O of the triangle OPQ is:

A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15 E. None of the above.

60. How many differently shaped triangles exist in which no two sides are of the same length, each side is of integral unit length and the perimeter of the triangle is less than 14 units?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. None of the above.

61. Company BELIANCE hosted a party for 8 members of Company AXIAL. In the party no member of AXIAL had interacted with more than three members of BELIANCE. Out of all the members of BELIANCE, three members – each interacted with four members of AXIAL and the remaining members – each interacted with two members of AXIAL. The greatest possible number of members of company BELIANCE in the party is

A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12 E. None of the above.

Answer the questions 62 to 64 on the basis of the following information.

KK, an aspiring entrepreneur wanted to set up a pen drive manufacturing unit. Since technology was changing very fast, he wanted to carefully gauge the demand and the likely profits before investing. Market survey indicated that he would be able to sell 1 lac units before customers shifted to different gadgets. KK realized that he had to incur two kinds of costs – fixed costs (the costs which do not change, irrespective of number of units of pen drives produced) and variable costs (= variable cost per unit multiplied by number of units). KK expected fixed cost to be Rs.40 lac and variable cost to be Rs.100 per unit. He expected each pen drive to be sold at Rs. 200.

62. What would be the break-even point (defined as no profit, no loss situation) for KK’s factory, in term of sales?

A. Rs. 80 lac B. Rs.100 lac C. Rs.120 lac D. Rs.140 lac E. CBD

63. KK was sceptical that per unit variable cost might increase by 10% though the demand might remain same. What will be the expected changes in profit in such a case?

A. Profit would decrease by 10.33%

B. Profit will increase will by 15.75%

C. Profit would decrease by 15.75%

D. Profit will decrease by 16.67%

E. Profit will increase by 16.67%

64. He discussed his business plan with a chartered accountant. KK informed that he was contemplating a loan of Rs.20 lac at simple interest of 10% per annum for starting the business. The chartered accountant informed him that in such a case KK has to pay interest, followed by 30 % tax. By how much does KK’s earnings change with 20% growth in sales vis-a-vis the original sales volume, in both cases considering tax and interest on loan?

A. 20% B. 16.7% C. 25.6% D. 33.3% E. 34.5%

65. Let X be a four-digit number with exactly three consecutive digits being same and is a multiple of 9. How many such X’s are possible?

A. 12 B. 16 C. 19 D. 21 E. None of the above.

Questions 66 – 67

66. Time taken by the inspector to catch the thief is:

A. 12 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 18 minutes D. 20 minutes E. 30 minutes

67. The distance the inspector has to travel is:

A. 3 km B. 3.75 km C. 5 km D. 6 km E. 7.5 km

Instructions: Answer the questions 68 to 72 on the basis of the data given in two charts.

Sodium carbonate, also called as soda ash is an important ingredient for glass, soaps and detergents, and many other products. There were two ways of producing soda ash. The first is producing soda ash from trona obtained naturally. The second method was producing soda ash from common salt through Solvay process. Soda ash produced thus was called synthetic soda ash. Tata Chemicals was one of largest producer of soda ash. Given below are two charts- first chart shows production of two varieties of soda ash at Tata Chemicals. The second chart shows production of two varieties of soda ash in the world.

68. It was expected that global soda ash production would be same for 2006, 2007 and 2008 (only for this question). What could be a possible reason for different patterns of production in Tata Chemicals and the world?

A. Tata Chemicals built new plants of 2.2 MT natural soda ash capacity in 2007.

B. Tata Chemicals built 3.2 MT of natural soda ash capacity from 2005 to 2008.

C. Tata Chemicals produced 2.7% of total soda ash in the world.

D. Tata Chemicals might have acquired 0.3 MT of natural soda ash facility in 2007.

E. None of the above conclusions could possibly be drawn.

69. Suppose the total global production increased (year on year) from 2005 to 2008 by the amount Tata Chemicals’ synthetic production (year on year) increased in the same period. By what percentage did the total global production increase from 2007 to 2008?

A. Cannot be calculated at all from the tables above.

B. Increased by 10.16%

C. Increased by 9.48%

D. Did not increase at all.

E. Increased by 8.64%

70. Which of the following statements are true?

1. Proportion of natural soda ash to synthetic soda has decreased from 2001 to 2006 globally.

2. Proportion of natural soda ash to synthetic soda ash has increased from 2001 to 2006 globally.

3. Proportion of synthetic soda ash to total soda ash has decreased for Tata Chemicals from 2005 to 2007 globally.

4. Proportion of synthetic soda ash to total soda ash has increased for Tata Chemicals.

A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 4 D. 2 and 3 E. 1, 2 and 3 only

71. What is Tata Chemicalss’ share of global production in 2008?

A. 12.86% B. 17.42% C. 59.34% D. Incomplete data E. None of the above

72. Suppose total global production of soda ash in 2008 was 40 MT and Tata Chemicals was second highest producer of soda ash globally after another company called Solvay. FMC Wyoming was the third highest producer. Two Indian giants, Tata Chemicals and Nirma have a combined production capacity of 8.8 MT. Which of the following statements are right?

1. Solvay’s market share was more than 20.66%

2. Solvay’s market share was more than 13.5%

3. FMC’s share was less than 10.33%

4. FMC share was less than 13.5%

5. Nirma, which was sixth largest producer, had a share of less than 8.5%.

Choose the right option.

A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 5 C. 2 and 4 D. 1, 3, and 5 E. 2, 4 and 5

73. Raj Travels has the following revenue model for a group package. Owner charges Rs.20,000 per person till group size of 200. For every additional traveller beyond 200, he starts offering discount of 50 rupees to all members of the group. The maximum possible income for Raj travels from the package is:

A. Rs.4000000 B. Rs.4200000 C. Rs.4500000 D. Rs.5000000 E. Rs.5500000

SECTION C: ANALYTICAL REASONING AND DECISION MAKING

Directions (Question No 74-85): Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question.

Questions (74-76): Four married couples competed in a signing competition. Each couple had a unique team name. Points scored by the teams were 2, 4, 6 and 8. The “Sweet Couple” won 2 points. The “Bindas Singers” won two more points than Laxman’s team. Mukesh’s team won four points more than Lina’s team, but Lina’s team didn’t score the least amount of points. “Just Singing” won 6 points. Waheda wasn’t on the team called “New Singers”. Sanjeev’s team won 4 points. Divya wasn’t on the “Bindas Singers” team. Tapas and Sania were on the same team, but it wasn’t the “Sweet Couple”.

74. Laxman’s teammate and team’s name were:

A. Divya and Sweet Couple

B. Divya and Just Singing

C. Waheda and Bindas Singers

D. Lina and Just Singing

E. Waheda and Sweet Couple

75. The teams arranged in the ascending order of points are:

A. Bindas Singers, Just Singing, New Singers, Sweet Couple

B. Sweet Couple, New Singers, Just Singing, Bindas Singers

C. New Singers, Sweet Couple, Bindas Singers, Just Singing

D. Sweet Couple, Bindas Singers, Just Singing, New Singers

E. Just Singing, Bindas Singers, Sweet Couple, New Singers

76. The combination which has the couples rightly paired is:

A. Mukesh, Lina

B. Mukesh, Waheda

C. Sanjeev, Divya

D. Sanjeev, Divya

E. Sanjeev, Waheda

Questions (77-80): The regular mathematics faculty could not teach because of being sick. As a stop gap arrangement, different visiting faculty taught different topics on 4 different days in a week. The scheduled time for class was 7:00 am with maximum permissible delay of 20 minutes. The monsoon made the city bus schedules erratic and therefore the classes started on different times on different days.

Mr. Singh didn’t teach on Thursday. Calculus was taught in the class that started at 7:20 am. Mr.Chatterjee took the class on Wednesday, but he didn’t teach probability. The class on Monday started at 7:00 am, but Mr.Singh didn’t teach it. Mr.Dutta didn’t teach ratio and proportion. Mr.Banerjee, who didn’t teach set theory, taught a class that started five minutes later than the class featuring the teacher who taught probability. The teacher in Friday’s class taught set theory. Wednesday’s class didn’t start at 7:10am. No two classes started at the same time.

77. The class on Wednesday started at:

A. 7:05 am and topic was ratio and proportion.

B. 7:20 am and topic was calculus.

C. 7:00 am and topic was calculus.

D. 7:20 am and topic was calculus.

E. 7:05 am and topic was probability.

78. The option which gives the correct teacher – subject combination is:

A. Mr. Chatterjee – ratio and proportion

B. Mr. Banerjee – calculus

C. Mr.Chatterjee – set theory

D. Mr. Singh – calculus

E. Mr. Singh – set theory

79. Probability was taught by:

A. Mr. Dutta on Monday

B. Mr. Dutta on Thursday

C. Mr. Singh on Wednesday

D. Mr. Singh on Monday

E. None of these

80. The option which gives a possible correct class time – week day combination is:

A. Wednesday–7:10 am, Thursday – 7:20 am, Friday – 7:05 am

B. Wednesday–7:20 am, Thursday – 7:15 am, Friday – 7:20 am

C. Wednesday–7:05 am, Thursday – 7:20 am, Friday – 7:10 am

D. Wednesday–7:10 am, Thursday – 7:15 am, Friday – 7:05 am

E. Wednesday–7:20 am, Thursday – 7:05 am, Friday – 7:10 am

Questions (81-85): Five people joined different engineering colleges. Their first names were Sarah (Ms.), Swati (Ms.), Jackie, Mohan and Priya (Ms.). The surnames were Reddy, Gupta, Sanyal, Kumar and Chatterjee. Except for one college which was rated 3 star, all other colleges were rated either 4 star or 5 star.

The “Techno Institute” had a higher rating than college where Priya studied. The three-star college was not “Deccan College.” Mohan’s last name was Gupta but he didn’t study at “Barla College.” Sarah, whose last name wasn’t Sanyal, joined “Techno Institute.” Ms.Kumar and Jackie both studied at four-star colleges. Ms. Reddy studied at the “Anipal Institute,” which wasn’t a five-star college. The “Barla College” was a five-star college. Swati’s last name wasn’t Chatterjee. The “Chemical College” was rated with one star less than the college where Sanyal studied. Only one college was rated five star.

81. Which is the correct combination of first names and surnames?

A. Mohan Gupta, Sarah Kumar, Priya Chatterjee

B. Priya Chatterjee, Sarah Sanyal, Jackie Kumar

C. Jackie Sanyal, Swati Reddy, Mohan Gupta

D. Mohan Gupta, Jackie Sanyal, Sarah Reddy

E. Jackie Chatterjee, Priya Reddy, Swati Sanyal

82. Which option gives a possible student – institute combination?

A. Priya – Anipal, Swati – Deccan, Mohan – Chemical

B. Swati – Barla, Priya – Anipal, Jackie – Deccan

C. Joydeep – Chemical, Priya – Techno, Mohan – Barla

D. Priya – Anipal, Joydeep – Techno, Sarah – Barla

E. Swati – Deccan, Priya – Anipal, Sarah –Techno

83. Mohan Gupta may have joined:

A. Techno – Institute which had 5 star rating

B. Deccan College which had 5 star rating

C. Anipal Institute which had 4 star rating

D. Chemical College which had 4 star rating

E. Techno – Institute which had 4 star rating

84. In which college did Priya study?

A. Anipal Institute B. Chemical Institute

C. Barla College D. Deccan College

E. Techno-Institute

85. The person with surname Sanyal was:

A. Sarah studying in Chemical College

B. Swati studying in Barla College

C. Priya studying in Deccan College

D. Jackie studying in Deccan College

E. Sarah studying in Techno-Institute

Read the following and choose the best alternative (Questions 86-89):

Decisions are often ‘risky’ in the sense that their outcomes are not known with certainty. Presented with a choice between a risky prospect that offers a 50 percent chance to win $200 (Otherwise nothing) and an alternative of receiving $100 for sure, most people prefer the sure gain over the gamble, although the two prospects have the same expected value. (Expected value is the sum of possible outcomes weighted by their probability of occurrence.) Preference for a sure outcome over a risky prospect of equal expected value is called risk averse; indeed, people tend to be risk averse when choosing between prospects with positive outcomes. The tendency towards risk aversion can be explained by the notion of diminishing sensitivity, first formalized by Daniel Bernoulli in 1738. Just as the impact of a candle is greater when it is brought into a dark room then into a room that is well lit so, suggested Bernoulli, the utility resulting from a small increase in wealth will be inversely proportional to the amount of wealth already in one’s possession. It has since been assumed that people have a subjective utility function, and that preferences should be described using expected utility instead of expected value. According to expected utility, the worth of a gamble offering a 50 percent chance to win $200 (otherwise nothing) is 0.50*u($200), where u is the person’s concave utility function. (A function is concave or convex if a line joining two points on the curve lies entirely below or above the curve, respectively). It follows from a concave function that the subjective value attached to a gain of $100 is more than 50 percent of the value attached to a gain of $200, which entails preference for the sure $100 gain and, hence, risk aversion.

Consider now a choice between losses. When asked to choose between a prospect that offers a 50 percent chance to lose $200 (otherwise nothing) and the alternative of losing $100 for sure, most people prefer to take an even chance at losing $200 or nothing over a sure $100 loss. This is because diminishing sensitivity applies to negative as well as to positive outcomes: the impact of an initial $100 loss is greater than that of the next $100. This results in a convex function for losses and a preference for risky prospects over sure outcomes of equal expected value, called risk seeking. With the exception of prospects that involve very small probabilities, risk aversion is generally observed in choices involving gains, whereas risk seeking tends to hold in choices involving losses.

Based on the above passage, analyse the decision situations faced by three persons: Babu, Babitha and Bablu.

86. Suppose instant and further utility of each unit of gain is same for Babu. Babu has decided to play as many times as possible, before he dies. He expected to live for another 50 years. A game does not last more than ten seconds. Babu is confused which theory to trust for making decision and seeks help of renowed decision making consultant: Roy Associates. what should be Roy Associates’ advice to Babu?

A. Babu can decide on the basis of Expected Value hypothesis.

B. Babu should decide on the basis of Expected Utility hypothesis.

C. “Mr.Babu, I’m redundant”.

D. A and B

E. A, B and C

87. Babitha played a game wherein she had three options with following probabilities: 0.4, 0.5 and 0.8. The gains from three outcomes are likely to be $100, $80 and $50. An expert has pointed out that Babitha is a risk taking person. According to expected utility hypotheis, which option is Babitha most likely to favour?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Babitha would be indifferent to all three actions.

E. None of the above.

88. Continuing with previous question, suppose Babitha can only play one more game, which theory would help in arriving at better decision?

A. Expected Value.

B. Expected Utility.

C. Both theories will give same results.

D. None of the two.

E. Data is insufficient to answer the question.

89. Bablu had four options with probability of 0.1, 0.25, 0.5 and 1. The gains associated with each options are: $1000, $400, $200 and $100 respectively. Bablu chose the first option. As per expected value hypothesis:

A. Bablu is risk taking.

B. Expected value function is concave.

C. Expected value function is convex.

D. It does not matter which option should Babu choose.

E. None of above.

Directions (Question No 90-94): This group of questions is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question.

A circular field, with inner radius of 10 meters and outer radius of 20 meters, was divided into five successive stage for ploughing. The ploughing of each stage was handed over to a different farmer.

1. Farmers are referred to by following symbols: F1, F2, F3, F4, F5.

2. The points between different stages of project are referred to by the following symbols: P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, not necessarily in the order.

3. Farmer F5 was given the work of ploughing stage starting at point P4.

4. The stage from point P5 to point P3 was not the first stage.

5. Farmer F4 was given the work of the fourth stage.

6. Stage 3 finished at point P1, and the work of which was not given to farmer F1.

7. Farmer F3 was given work of stage ending at point P5.

90. Which was the finish point for farmer F2?

A. P1 B. P2 C. P3 D. P4 E. P5

91. Which stage was ploughed by farmer F5?

A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth

92. Which were the starting and finish points of stage 2?

A. P2 and P5 B. P5 and P3 C. P3 and P1 D. P5 and P4 E. P3 and P2

93. For which farmer was P2 a finishing point?

A. F1 B. F2 C. F3 D. F4 E. F5

94. Which was the starting point for Farmer F3?

A. P2 B. P3 C. P4 D. P1 E. None of the above

95. Children are in pursuit of a dog whose leash has broken. Krishnarajan is directly behind the dog. Rangarajan is behind Krishnarajan. Natrajan is behind Rangarajan. Premrajan is ahead of the dog walking down the street in the opposite direction. As the children and dog pass, Premrajan turns around and joins the pursuit. He runs in behind Rangarajan. Krishnarajan runs faster and is alongside the dog on the left. Rangarajan runs faster and is alongside the dog on the right. Which child is directly behind the dog?

A. Krishnarajan B. Rangarajan C. Natrajan D. Premarajan E. None of above

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative (Question 97 – 100):

Om Chowdary was one of the supervisors in the Fire and Safety (F&S) department of Maqsood Textile Mills. He was a distant cousin to Mr. Bhiwani, General Manager (personal & Administration). Personnel & Administration department was given the responsibility of all personnel related decisions. It was often rumoured that Om had obtained the job due to his cousin’s influence. However, Om was meticulous in the performance of his duties and didn’t give anyone a reason for complaint. It was known that Om was not much given to talking and kept to himself and to his duties.

All F&S supervisors reported to Mr.Rabindra, the shop-floor manager. The mill operated on a three-shift basis and Rabindra allocated the supervisors to different shifts. They were required to be present at all times during the shift operation and carry out scheduled checks of machinery and fire fighting equipments. For some reasons, Om was allotted the night shift more often than other supervisors. Om accepted these allocations without any objection, while it was known that other supervisors would often plead and bargain with Rabindra to be allocated the day shifts. During the night shift, keeping awake and remaining mentally alert were some of the major challenges faced by the supervisors.

Of late, Rabindra observed signs of indifference from Om. On two occasions he found Om absent from his cabin. Rabindra heard from others that Om was often found in different parts of the shop floor talking to employees. Rabindra called him to his office and reminded Om of his responsibilities. Om did not counter Rabindra. He promised that he would not be lax in his duties again. Rabindra also braoched the subject with Mr.Bhiwani. Mr.Bhiwani called Om to his office and talked on a very personal basis. He reminded Om that their family relations made it uncomfortable to all concerned. Om nodded and agreed to do better. Soon his performance became that of a model supervisor. It was often found he went beyond his official duties to sort out problems of employees.

About three months later, Rabindra happened to visit the plant during night. As he looked into F&S office, he found Om playing solitaire on the office computer. Mr. Rabindra immediately fired Om.

The next morning Mr. Bhivani called Mr.Rabindra and asked how he can fire an employee. He suggested that Mr. Rabindra reconsider Om’s dismissal. “This decision has already been made. There will be no turning back” replied Rabindra.

97. The options below give combinations of possible root cause of the problem and the justifications thereof. Given the details in the case, which one can be inferred to be the best option?

A. Hiring of Om. Reason: that ensured Om was perpetually casual towards his duties.

B. Om favrouring to work during the night shift. Reason: Absence of Rabindra ensured that Om could relax.

C. Rabindra’s bias against Om. Reason: Rabindra had been assigning too many night shifts to Om while for other supervisors he was lenient.

D. Rabindra jumping to conclusions. Reason: He should have investigated whether Om had carried out his duties.

E. Rabindra’s firing of Om. Reason: It led to clash between Rabindra and Mr.Bhiwani.

98. The details of the entire episode have become common knowledge among all the employees of the company. Out of the options below, which one presents the best way for the top management to resolve the issue so as to benefit the organisation as a whole?

A. Revoke Rabindra’s order. It can be communicated to others that firing was too severe a punishment for such a small incident of indiscipline.

B. Ask Om for clarification. It can be communicated that since Om had clarified regarding his duties, the order has been taken back.

C. Declare Rabindra’s order as void. Reiterate officially the disciplinary processes that need to be followed by managers along with their scope of authority.

D. Ask feedback from other employees on the shop-floor regarding Om’s performance. This can be used to revoke Rabindra’s order.

E. Take the feedback of other F&S supervisors as to the work involved during night shift. This would better explain Om’s behaviour.

99. Out of the options below, which one best summarizes the learning from solitaire incident?

A. Managers often do not take any responsibility towards training juniors.

B. People tend to become relaxed during night shift and require surprise checks to keep them on their toes.

C. Certain roles would have different ways of carrying out their duties.

D. Having relatives in the same organisation can be a source of potential problems.

E. Managers tend to allocate silent people to difficult positions.

100. Of the options below, which could have been a better response from Mr. Rabindra when he saw Om playing?

A. He should have clarified about his authority to fire employees.

B. He should have informed Mr.Bhiwani about the incident and asked him to take necessary action.

C. He should have asked the employees of the shift regarding Om’s performance of his duties.

D. He should have checked if Om had done his duties or not.

E. He should have checked the production levels in the shift to see if it was required.

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative (Questions 101-104):

Shekhar, an MBA from Singapore returned to his hometown – Jamshedpur. Jamshedpur had a population of 10 lacs with one of the highest per capita income among Indian cities. Shekhar loved music. While listening to his favourite song on “satellite radio”, he wondered if he could mix his passion with business. Incidentally, a few weeks later, while browsing the Internet, he came across an advertisement from Music world, which called for expression of interest from potential franchisees. Jamshedpur did not have a single good music outlet, where its residents could buy quality, variety and the latest from the world of music.

Music world wanted the potential franchisees to own minimum 1200 square feet space and invest Rs.30 lacs. Profits were to be shared in the ratio of 3:7 between Music World and the franchisee. While Shekhar was excited about working with a renowed brand, he was worried if Rs.30 lacs was too high an amount to shell out. He did not have the entire amount with him and was thinking of borrowing from the bank. He made enquiries with other Music world franchisees located in towns like Patna and Ranchi, as he expected similar footfall in Jamshedpur. A franchisee in Patna had sales revenue varying from 1-2 lacs rupees per month with profit margin in the range of 25-30%. Satisfied, Shekhar decided to proceed.

Soon, he was on a look out for the space. Jamshedpur had three main areas – Bistpur, Sakchi and Sonari. All areas were inter-connected by good roads. Bistupur was a business area where most of high end retail formats were located. Most upper middle class and higher class customers shopped there. It was also the education hub of the city. On the other hand, Sakchi was growing lower middle class business area and Sonari had mostly residential population.

Shekhar was in favour of choosing Bistupur as it was the place where he shopped. However, he soon stumbled across problems. Not only it was difficult to obtain space in Bistupur but property rentals touched 30-40 rupees per square feet per month. Rentals at Sakchi and Sonari were in the range of 15-20 rupees per square feet per month. Also, Shekhar’s friend, who stayed in Sakchi told him that a few branded outlets were opening in Sakchi and it seemed to be the fastest growing market in Jamshedpur, with highest ratio of teenagers. But, Shekhar was not in favour of Sakchi due to its low image. He expected to target college going crowd in Bistupur.

High real estate prices in Bistupur and his low assessment of Sakchi market created confusion in Shekhar’s mind. To give the decision a serious and fresh thought, he decided to hit Jamshedpur-Ranchi highway in his newly acquired car.

101. How best should Shekhar resolve his confusion?

A. By investing in the franchise.

B. Do not invest in the franchise and look for different brand name.

C. Go back to Singapore and start looking for a job.

D. Do a further in-depth study to find the drives and potential of the business.

E. Approach another music company for setting up a franchise.

102. Suppose scales in Patna and Bistupur are likely to be same, how many years would it take for Shekhar to recoup the investment (consider zero inflation)?

A. Less than five years.

B. Less than seven years.

C. Less than eight years.

D. Less than nine years.

E. May be never.

103. What could be the most likely reason for Shekhar’s bias in favour of Bistupur?

A. Presence of college going crowd, as he felt they were the customers for the latest music.

B. Crowded (hoi polio) image of Sakchi.

C. It was difficult for Shekhar to asociate non-Bistupur areas with good quality products.

D. Higher rentals in Bistupur.

E. Patronage of Bistupur shops by executives and their families.

104. Which one of the following is the most important decision criterion in such a business situation?

A. Financial capability of entrepreneur.

B. Changes in music industry.

C. Future market growth.

D. Profitability of business in first couple of years.

E. Real Estate prices.

Answer key:

1. E 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. E

7. A 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. C

13. A 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. C

19. C 20. E 21. A 22. C 23. E 24. A

25. A 26. E 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. C

31. B 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. E

37. B 38. D 39. C 40. E 41. D 42. E

43. C 44. E 45. B 46. B 47. (33:7) 48. D

49. C 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. B 54. D

55. B 56. E 57. C 58. C 59. D 60. C

61. A 62. A 63. D 64. E 65. E 66. D

67. C 68. B 69. D 70. A 71. D 72. C

73. C 74. E 75. D 76. D 77. (B,D) 78. E

79. A 80. E 81. E 82. B 83. D 84. A

85. B 86. C 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. A

91. E 92. B 93. E 94. A 95. D 96. E

97. C 98. C 99. C 100. D 101. D 102. E

103. A 104. D

XAT 2008 Original Paper

nishant — Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:22:24 +0000

SECTION A : ANALYTICAL REASONING & DECISION MAKING

Directions (Question No. 1 – 21): Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

Question No. 1-4: Six square states having equal area in a country are located in North South direction in two columns next to each other. States are located in the given order, State 1, State 3, and State 5 are on the western side and State 2, State 4, and State 6 are on the eastern side. Within the six states, there are exactly four medical institutes, two management institutes, and two technical institutes. These eight institutions are located as follows:

No institution is in more than one of the states.

None of the states contains more than one management institute, and none contains more than one technical institute. None of the states contains both a management institute and a technical institute.

Each management institute is located in a state that contains at least one medical institute.

The technical institutes are located in two states that do not share a common boundary. States 3 contains a technical institute, and State 6 contains a management institute.

1. If one of the states contains exactly two medical institutes and exactly one technical institute, then which combination of three states might contain no medical institute?

(A) 1, 3, 5 (B) 1, 4, 5 (C) 2, 3, 5 (D) 2, 4, 6 (E) 4, 5, 6

2. Which one of the following could be true?

(A) State 1 contains exactly one medical institute.

(B) State 1 contains exactly one technical institute.

(D) State 5 contains exactly one technical institute.

(E) State 6 contains exactly one technical institute.

3. A complete and accurate list of the states, any one of which could contain the management institute that is not in State 6, would be ______.

(A) 1, 4 (B) 1, 4, 5 (C) 2, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4, 5 (E) 4, 5

4. If each of the six states contain at least one of the eight institutions, then which one of the following must be true?

(A) There is a management institute in state 4

(B) There is a management institute in state 1

(D) There is a medical institute in state 3

(E) There is a medical institute in state 4

Question No. 5-8: During a four-week period, each one of seven previously unadvertised products – G, H, J, K, L, M and O – will be advertised. A different pair of these products will be advertised each week. Exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. None of the other products gets repeated in any pair. Further, the following constraints must be observed:

J is not advertised during a given week unless H is advertised during the immediately preceding week.

The product that is advertised twice is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3.

G is not advertised during a given week unless either J or O is also advertised that week.

K is advertised during one of the first two weeks.

O is one of the products advertised during week 3.

5. Which one of the following could be the schedule of the advertisements?

(A) Week 1 : G, J; week 2 : K, L; week 3 : O, M; week 4 : H, L

(B) Week 1 : H, K ; week 2 : J, M; week 3 : O, L; week 4 : G, M

(D) Week 1 : H, L ; week 2 : J, M; week 3 : O, G; week 4: K, L

(E) Week 1 : H, K ; week 2 : J, G; week 3 : O, L; week 4 : M, K

6. If L is the product that is advertised during two of the week, which one of the following is a product that MUST be advertised during one of the weeks in which L is advertised?

(A) M (B) G (C) H (D) J (E) K

7. Which one of the following is product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks?

(A) H (B) J (C) K (D) L (E) O

8. Which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertised during the same week?

(A) M and O (B) G and H (C) H and J (D) H and O (E) K and O

Question 9-12: There are exactly ten stores and no other buildings on a straight street in Bistupur Market. On the northern side of the street, from West to East, are stores 1, 3, 4, 7 and 9; on the southern side of the street, also from West to East, are stores 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10. The stores on the northern side are located directly across the street from those on the southern side, facing each other in pairs, as follows: 1 and 2; 3 and 4; 5 and 6; 7 and 8; 9 and 10. Each store is decorated with lights in exactly one of the following colours : green, red and yellow. The stores have been decorated with lights according to the following conditions:

No store is decorated with lights of the same colour as those of any store adjacent to it. No store is decorated with lights of the same as those of the store directly across the street from it.

Yellow lights decorate exactly one store on each side of the street.

Red lights decorate store 4.

Yellow lights decorate store 5.

9. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colours of the lights that decorate stores 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10 respectively?

(A) green, red, green, red, green

(B) green, red, yellow, red, green

(D) yellow, green, red, green, red

(E) yellow, red, green, red, yellow

10. If green lights decorate store 7, then each of the following statements could be false EXCEPT:

(A) Green lights decorate store 2

(B) Green lights decorate store 10

(D) Red lights decorate store 8

(E) Yellow lights decorate store 2

11. Suppose that yellow lights decorate exactly two stores on the south side of the street and exactly one store on the north side. If all other conditions remain the same, then which one of the following statements MUST be true?

(A) Green lights decorate store 1

(B) Red lights decorate store 7

(D) Yellow lights decorate store 2

(E) Yellow lights decorate store 8

12. Which one of the following statements MUST be true?

(A) Green lights decorate store 10

(B) Red lights decorate store 1

(D) Yellow lights decorate store 8

(E) Yellow lights decorate store 10

Question No. 13-17: In a game, “words” (meaningful or meaningless) consist of any combination of at least five letters of the English alphabets. A “sentence” consists of exactly six words and satisfies the following conditions:

The six words are written from left to right on a single line in alphabetical order.

The sentence can start with any word, and successive word is formed by applying exactly one of three operations to the preceding word: delete one letter; add a letter; replace a one letter with another. At the most three of the six words can begin with the same letter. Except for the first word, each word is formed by a different operation used for the preceding word.

13. Which one of the following could be a sentence in the word game?

(A) Bzaeak blaeak laeak paeak paea paean

(B) Doteam goleam golean olean omean omman

(D) Feted freted reted seted seteg aseteg

(E) Forod forol forols forpls orpls morpls

14. If the first word in a sentence is “illicit” and fourth word is “Iicit”, then the third word can be

(A) Elicit (B) Implicit (C) Explicit (D) Enlist (E) Inlist

15. If “clean” is the first word in a sentence and “learn” is another word in the sentence, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the positions “learn” cloud occupy?

(A) Third (B) Second, third, fourth (C) Third, fourth

(D) Third, fourth, fifth (E) Third, fourth, fifth, sixth

16. If the first word in a sentence consists of five letters, then the maximum number of letters that the fifth word in the sentence could contain is

(A) Seven (B) Four (C) Eight (D) Five (E) Six

17. The last letter of the English alphabet that the first word of a sentence in the word game can begin with is

(A) t (B) w (C) x (D) d (E) z

Questions No 18–21: Prof. Mukhopadhay works only on Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Fridays, and Saturdays. She performs four different activities – lecturing, conducting quizzes, evaluating quizzes, and working on consultancy projects. Each working day she performs exactly one activity in the morning and exactly one activity in the afternoon. During each week her work schedule MUST satisfy the following restrictions:

She conducts quizzes on exactly three mornings.

If she conducts quizzes on Monday, she does not conduct a quiz on Tuesday.

She lectures in the afternoon on exactly two consecutive calendar days.

She evaluates quizzes on exactly one morning and three afternoons.

She works on consultancy project on exactly one morning.

On Saturday, she neither lectures nor conducts quizzes.

18. Which one of the following must be a day on which Professor lectures?

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday (E) Saturday

19. On Wednesday, the Professor could be scheduled to

(A) Work on a consultancy project in the morning and conduct a quiz in the afternoon

(B) Lecture in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon

(D) Conduct a quiz in the morning and work on consultancy project in the afternoon

(E) Evaluate quizzes in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon

20. Which one of the following statements must be true?

(A) There is one day on which she evaluates quizzes both in the morning and in the afternoon.

(B) She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which lectures.

(D) She lectures on one of the days on which she conducts quiz.

(E) She lectures on one of the days on which evaluates quizzes.

21. If the Professor conducts a quiz on Tuesday, then her schedule for evaluating quizzes could be

(A) Monday morning, Monday afternoon, Friday morning, Friday afternoon

(B) Monday morning, Friday afternoon, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon

(D) Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoon, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative (Questions 22-27):

Mr. Rajiv Singhal, Chairman of the Board of Directors of Loha India Ltd., (a steel manufacturing company) had just been visited by several other directors of the company. The directors were upset with recent actions of the company president, Mr. Ganesh Thakur. They demanded that the board consider fining the president.

Mr. Thakur, recently appointed as president, had undertaken to solve some of the management-employees problems by dealing directly with the individuals, as often as possible. The company did not have a history of strikes or any other form of collective actions and was considered to have good work culture. However, Mr. Thakur felt that by dealing directly with individuals, he could portray the management’s concern for the employees. An important initiative of Mr. Thakur was to negotiate wages of the supervisors with each supervisor. In these negotiation meetings, he would not involve anyone else, including the Personnel Department which reported to him, so as to take unbiased decision. After negotiation, a wage contract would be drawn up for each supervisor. This, he felt, would recognize and reward the better performers. Mr. Thakur successfully implemented the process for most of the supervisors, except those working in night shift. For them he had drawn up the contracts unilaterally benchmarking the wages of supervisors of night shift with that of supervisors of the day shift.

For several days Ram Lal, a night shift supervisor, had been trying to seek an appointment with Mr. Thakur about his wages. He was disgruntled, not only over his failure to see the president, but also over the lack of discussions about his wage contract prior to its being effected. As a family man with six dependents, he felt his weekly wage should be higher than that granted to him.

Last Thursday afternoon Ram Lal stopped by the president’s office and tried to see him. Mr. Thakur’s secretary refused his request on the grounds that Mr. Thakur was busy. Infuriated, Ram Lal stormed into the president’s office and confronted the startled Mr. Thakur, with his demands for a better wage. Mr. Thakur stood up and told Ram Lal to get our of his office and express his grievance through official channel. Ram Lal took a swing at the president, who in trun punched Ram Lal on the jaw and knocked him unconscious.

22. Out of the following, which one seems to be the most likely cause of Ram Lal’s grievance?

(A) His disappointment with the management’s philosophy of having one to one interaction as the supervisors were in a way being forced to accept the wage contracts.

(B) His being in the night shift had worked to his disadvantage as he could not interact with the management regarding his problem.

(D) Employment in the night shift forced him to stay away from his family during the day time and therefore he could not interact with his family members much.

(E) All of these

23. Apart from the supervisors working the night shift, executives of which department will have most justified reasons to be to disgruntled with Mr. Thakur’s initiative?

1. Production department – for not being consulted regarding the behaviour of the supervisors on the shop floor.

2. Finance department – for not taken into confidence regarding the financial consequences of the wage contracts.

3. Marketing department – for not being consulted on the likely impact of the wage contracts on the image of the company.

4. Quality control – for not being able to give inputs to Mr. Thakur on how to improve quality of steel making process.

5. Personnel department – for it was their work to oversee wage policies for employees and they had been ignored by Mr. Thakur.

(A) 1 + 2 + 3 (B) 1 + 4 + 5 (C) 1 + 2 + 5 (D) 1 + 3 + 4 (E) 3 + 4 + 5

24. Which of the following managerial attributes does Mr. Thakur seem to lack the most?

(A) Emotional instability under pressure

(B) Emotional stability under pressure

(D) Ethical behaviour

(E) Independent decision making

25. The most important causal factor for this entire episode could be:

(A) Trying to follow a divide-and-rule policy in his dealings with the supervisors.

(B) Paternalistic approach towards mature individuals in the organization.

(D) Inconsistent dealings of Mr. Thakur with supervisors.

(E) Inadequate standards for measurement of supervisors’ on-job performance.

26. The situation with Mr. Lal could have been avoided if Mr. Thakur had

1. Delegated for night shift employees to Personnel department.

2. Created a process for supervisors working the night shift so that they could have an opportunity to interact with him.

3. Created an open door policy that would have allowed employees to see him without any appointment.

4. Postponed the decision of wage revision for supervisors in the night shift for two months, since supervisors were rotated on different shifts after every two months.

The option that best arranges the above managerial interventions in decreasing order of organizational impact is:

(A) 4, 2, 3, 1 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1 (C) 2, 3, 1, 4 (D) 4, 3, 1, 2 (E) 4, 1, 2, 3

27. The most likely premise behind Mr. Thakur’s initiative regarding individualized meetings with the supervisors seems to be

(A) Involvement of company’s president in wage problems of employees will lead to a better goodwill towards the management among the workers.

(B) Employee related policies should allow scope for bargaining by employees which leads to unsatisfied employees.

(C) Individual agreements with supervisors would allow the management to prevent any possible collective action by the supervisors.

(D) Management will be able to force supervisors to accept lesser wages individually in this way.

(E) He would be able to know who the trouble makers in the plant are by interacting with the supervisors.

Go through the situation and the accompanying table, and pick up the best alternative to answer Question nos. 28-30

Question No 28-29: These are five sets of digits – Set A, Set B, Set C, Set D, and Set E as shown in given diagram. Set A contains one digit, Set B contains two digits, Set C contains three digits, Set D contains two digits, and Set E contains one digit.

Rearrange the digits, across the sets, such that the number formed out of digits of Set C is multiple of the numbers formed from digits in sets on either side. For example; in the given diagram, SET C is a multiple of digits in SET A and SET B but not of SET D and SET E.

28. What is the minimum number of rearrangements required to arrive at the solution? A rearrangement is defined as an exchanged with 5 of set E, it is counted as one rearrangement.

(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 3 (E) 7

29. Which of the following pair of digits would occupy set A and E?

(A) 2 and 6 (B) 3 and 6 (C) 3 and 9 (D) 4 and 8 (E) 2 and 4

30. Magic Box

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10 (E) 8

Questions 31-34: Read the following situations and choose the best possible alternative.

31. The city of Nagar has a population of 10 million, 2 millions amongst whom were rich, 3 million poor and 5 million belonged to the middle class. Saundarya Cosmetics manufactured and sold beauty product to rich class at a premium price. Its products were very popular with customers. Many people from middle and poor segments of population aspired to buy these products but could not afford because of high prices. Of late, sales growth was stagnating in the rich segment. Which of the following is the best option for Saundarya Cosmetics to maximize long-term profits?

(A) Sell the same products at lower prices to middle and poor classes.

(B) Sell its products under different brand names to middle and poor classes.

(C) Sell similar products, of different quality standards with different brand names, to middle classes and poor classes.

(D) Continue to target rich only and hope that today’s middle class would be tomorrow’s rich class.

(E) Target middle class as it is the largest segment and forget about the rich.

32. Seema was a finance manager in an MNC and felt that gender discrimination at the workplace hampered her career growth. Frustrated, she quit the job and started a company. While starting her company, Seema decide that she would have equal proportion of males and females. Over the last six years, Seema emerged as a very successful entrepreneur and expanded her business to eight locations in the country. However, Seema recently started facing an ethical dilemma because she realized that female employees were not willing to travel across cities and work late hours, as the work required them to do so. Male employees. On the other hand, she is aware that equal representation was one of the strongest reasons for here to have founded the company. What should she do as a conscientious female entrepreneur?

(A) Reduce the number of female employees, as it is a business requirement. She should not let anything affect her business.

(B) See if unwilling female employees could be given assignments which do not require travel and involve less overtime.

(D) Henceforth hire only male employees.

(E) She should close the business.

33. A database software manufacturing company found out that a product it has launched recently has a few bugs. The product has already been bought by more than a million customers. The company realized that bugs could cost its customers significantly. However, if it informs the customers about the bug, it feared losing credibility. What would be the most ethical option for the company?

(A) Apologize and fix up the bug for all customers even if it has to incur losses.

(B) Do not tell customers about bugs and remove only when customers face problems, even if it means losses for the customers.

(D) Keep silent but introduce an improved product that is bug-free at the earliest.

(E) Take the product off the market and apologize to customers.

34. You, a recruitment manager, are interviewing Mayank, a hard-working young man, who has problems in speaking fluent English. He has studied in vernacular medium schools and colleges. Amongst the following options, what would you choose to do, if your company has vacancies?

(A) I would hire him at all costs.

(B) I would hire him for production or finance job but not for marketing job, which requires good communication skills.

(D) I would hire him for the job he is good at, and provide training in other areas.

(E) I would not hire him as he might be a burden on organization because of his poor communication skills.

Read the following situation and choose the best possible alternative.

35. The surnames of four professionals are: Bannerji, chatterji, Mukheji and Pestonji. Their professions are accountant, lawyer, dentist and doctor (not necessarily in this order). The accountant and lawyer work in their offices, while the dentist and doctor work in their nursing homes. The accountant looks after Mukherji’s and Chatterji’s account, Chatterji, does not know Bannerji, although his nursing home is in the same street as Bannerji’s office. Chatterji is not a doctor.

What are the occupations of the four people.

(A) Bannerji – Doctor, Chatterji – Dentist, Mukherji-accountant and Pestonji-Lawyer

(B) Bannerji-Lawyer, Chatterji-Dentist, Mukherji-accountant and pestonji-Doctor

(D) Bannerji-Doctor, Chatterji-Accountant, Mukherji-Dentist, and Pestonji-Lawyer

(E) Bannerji-Dentist, chatterji-Lawyer, Mukherji-Doctor andPestonji-Accountant

Go through the table that follows and pick up the best alternative to answer questions Question no. 36 to 38.

Teams A, B, C and D are participating in a cricket tournament. Team A has to pick up five batsmen out of the ten available. All batsmen have played 100 matches each in the past. Past data indicates that C beats A 8 out of 10 times. B beats A 5 out of 10 times and D beats A 1 out of 10 times. The conditions for series are likely to be normal and bowling strength of all teams is same. Manager of Team A, based on his past experience, feels that team should take high risk against stronger opponents and low risk against weaker opponents for maximizing chances of wining the game.

The average score of the top 10 batsmen of team A is provided in the table given below.

The average scores of the top 5 batsmen for each team playing in the tournament are: C (270); B (215); D (180) and A (215).

36. Team A is playing its first match with team C. Based on the statistics above, whom should be manager choose so that the team has maximum chances of winning?

(A) RD, ST, SG, MD, YS

(B) VS, YS, RU, MD, MT

(C)RD, ST, SG, VS, MD

(D) YS, RU, VS, MK, MD

(E) ST, VS, RU, MD, SG

37. Team A would play the second match with D. Based on the statistics above, whom should the manager choose so that A has maximum chances of winning?

(A) RD, ST, MD, VS, YS

(B) RD, ST, SG, VS, MD

(D) SG, RU, YS, MK, MD

(E) ST, RD, MK, MD, SG

38. Team A would play the third match with B. Based on the statistics above, whom should be manager choose so that A has maximum chances of winning?

(A) RD, RU, MK, VS, YS

(B) RD, VS, MT, RU, YS

(D) ST, RD, MK, MD, SG

(E) SG, RU, YS, MK, VV

Note: All units of measurement are in centimeters, unless otherwise specified.

For questions 39 & 40, a statement is followed by three conclusions. Select the answer from the following options.

(A) Using the given statement, only conclusion I can be derived.

(B) Using the given statement, only conclusion II can be derived.

(D) Using the given statement, all conclusions, I, II and III can be derived.

(E) Using the given statement, none of the three conclusions, I, II and III can be derived.

40. A, B, C and D are whole numbers such that

A + B + C = 118

B + C + D = 156

C + D + A = 166

D + A + B = 178

Conclusion I. A is the smallest number and A = 21.

Conclusion II. D is the largest number and D = 88.

Conclusion III. B is the largest number and B = 56.

SECTION B: DATA INTERPRETATION AND QUANTITIATIVE ABILITY:

41. Let X = {a, b, c} and Y = {1, m}. Consider the following four subsets of X × Y.

F₁ = {(a, 1), (a, m), (b, 1), (c, m)}

F₂ = {(a, 1), (b, 1) (c, 1)}

F₃ = {(a, 1), (b, m), (c, m)}

F₄ = {(a, 1), (b, m)}

Which one, amongst the choices given below is a representation of functions from X to Y?

(A) F₁, F₂ and F₃

(B) F₂ and F₃

(D) F₃ and F₄

(E) None of the above

43. If F(x, n) be the number of ways of distributing “x” toys to “n” children so that each child received at the most 2 toys then F(4, 3) = ______ ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6 (E) 5

44. In a cricket match, Team A scored 232 runs without losing a wicket. The score consisted of byes, wides and runs scored by two opening batsmen: Ram and Shyam. The runs scored by the two batsmen are 26 times wides. There are 8 more byes than wides. If the ratio of the runs scored by Ram and shyam is 6 : 7, then the runs scored by Ram is

(A) 88 (B) 96 (C) 102 (D) 112 (E) None of the above.

47. ABCD is a rectangle with AD = 10. P is a point on BC such that angle APD = 90°. If DP = 8 then the length of BP is _____?

(A) 3.6 (B) 6.4 (C) 5.2 (D) 4.8 (E) None of the above

48. Four digits of the number 29138576 are omitted so that the result is as large as possible. The largest omitted digit is

(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6 (E) 5

50. Rajiv is a student in a business school. After every test he calculates his cumulative average. QT and OB were his last two tests. 83 marks in QT increased his average by 2. 75 marks in OB further increased his average by 1. Reasoning is the next test, if he gets 51 in Reasoning, his average will be _____?

(A) 59 (B) 60 (C) 61 (D) 62 (E) 63

51. Interpret relationship between the returns of Stock X and Mutual Fund Y based on the following graph, where percentage return of Stock X and Mutual Fund Y are given for sixteen days of a month.

(A) Returns of stock X are directly proportional to mutual find Y.

(B) Average returns from stock X and mutual fund Y are the same.

(D) Stock X is inversely proportional to mutual fund Y.

(E) Stock X is more volatile than mutual fund Y.

52. For each p > 1, a sequence {A_n} is defined by A₀ = 1 and A_n = pn + (- 1)ⁿ A_n-1 for each n ≥ 1. For how many integer values of p, 1000 is a term of the sequence?

(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 4 (E) None of the above

53. If 0 < p < 1 then roots of the equation (1 – p)x² + 4x + p = 0 are ______ ?

(A) Both 0

(B) Imaginary

(D) Real and both negative

(E) Real and of opposite sign.

54. Consider a sequence –6, –12, 18, 24, –30, –36, 42,…..if sum of the first n terms of the sequence is 132, then the value of n is ______ ?

(A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 18 (D) 24 (E) 22

55. The number of possible real solution(s) of y is equation y² – 2y cos x + 1 = 0 is _____ ?

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3 (E) None of the above

56. In a triangle ABC, AB = 3, BC = 4 and CA = 5. Point D is the midpoint of AB, point E is on segment AC and point F is on segment BC. If AE = 1.5 and BF = 0.5 then angle DEF =

(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 75° (E) CBD

58. A train left station X at A hour B minutes. It reached station Y at B hour C minutes on the same day, after traveling for C hours A minutes (clock shows time from 0 hours to 24 hours). Number of possible value(s) of A is ____.

(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0 (E) None of the above.

Questions 59-61: A, B, C, D, E and F are six positive integers such that

B + C + D + E = 4 A

C + F = 3 A

C + D + E = 2 F

F = 2 D

E + F = 2 C + 1

If A is a prime number between 12 and 20, then

59. The value of C is

(A) 13 (B) 17 (C) 19 (D) 21 (E) 23

60. The value of F is

(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 28 (D) 24 (E) 20

61. Which of the following must be true?

(A) D is the lowest integer and D = 14

(B) C is the greatest integer and C = 23

(D) A is the lowest integer and A = 13

(E) B is the lowest integer and B = 12

62. ABCD is a quadrilateral. The diagonals of ABCD intersect at the point P. The area of the triangle APD and BPC are 27 and 12, respectively. If the areas of the triangles APB and CPD are equal then the area of triangle APB is

(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 15 (D) 16 (E) 21

In the questions 64-65, one statement is followed by three conclusions. Section the appropriate answer from the options given below.

(A) Using the given statement, only conclusion I can be derived.

(B) Using the given statement, only conclusion II can be derived.

(D) Using the given statement, conclusions I, II and III can be derived.

(E) Using the given statement, none of the three conclusions I, II and III can be derived.

64. A₀, A₁, A₂, …… is a sequence of numbers with A₀ = 1, A₁ = 3,

and A_t = (t + 1)A_t-1 – t A_t-2 for t = 2, 3, 4, ….

Conclusion I. A₈ = 77

Conclusion II. A₁₀ = 121

Conclusion III. A₁₂ = 145.

65. A, B, C be real numbers satisfying A < B < C, A + B + C = 6 and AB + BC + CA = 9

Conclusion I. 1 < B < 3

Conclusion II. 2 < A < 3

Conclusion III. 0 < C < 1

66. The coordinates of P and Q are (0, 4) and (a, 6), respectively. R is the midpoint of PQ. The perpendicular bisector of PQ cuts X-axis at point S(b, 0). For how many integer value(s) of “a”, b is an integer?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1 (E) 0

Answer the question no. 67 to 71 on the basis of the data given below.

67. What was the total value of surcharge paid – at the rate of 14% of sales value –by Jamshedpur Electronics, over the period of three months?

(A) CBD (B) 18522 (C) 18548 (D) 18425 (E) 18485

68. 10% of sales price of Ipods and 20% of sales price of television contribute to the profits of Jamshedpur Electronics. How much profit did the company earn in the month of January from Bistupur and Kadma from the two products?

(A) 513 (B) 4410 (C) 3645 (D) 5230 (E) 5350

69. In the period from January to March, consider that Jamshedpur Electronics ordered 7560 units of Ipods for all three areas put together. What was unit sales price of Ipod during the period? The ending inventory was 6120 units and the beginning inventory stood at 5760.

(A) 14.00 (B) 14.65 (C) 14.80 (D) 13.00 (E) 13.60

70. For Jamshedpur Electronics beginning inventory was 720 for televisions and 1800 for Ipods and ending inventory was 840 for televisions and 1920 for Ipods in the month of January. How many units of televisions and Ipods did Jamshdpur Electronics order for the month of January?

Additional data: In the month of February, 1050 units of televisions and 2400 units of Ipods were sold in all three areas put together.

(A) 1020, 2270 (B) 1020, 2370 (C) 2270, 1030 (D) 1030, 2370 (E) 1020, 2280

71. In the period from January to March, Jamshedpur Electronics sold 3150 units of televisions, having started with a beginning inventory of 2520 units and ending with an inventory of 2880. What was value of order placed (Rupees in thousands) by Jamshedpur Electronics during the three months period? [Profits are 25% of cost price, uniformly.]

(A) 2808 (B) 26325 (C) 22320 (D) 25200 (E) 28080

Questions 72-73: In Second year, students at a business school can opt for Systems, Operations, or HR electives only. The number of girls opting for Operations and the number of boys Opting for Systems elective is 37. Twenty-two students opt for operations electives. Twenty girls opt for System and Operation electives. The number of students opting for Systems electives and the number of boys opting for Operations electives is 37. Twenty-five students opt for HR electives.

72. The number of students in the second year is ____?

(A) 73 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 77 (E) 76

73. If 20% of the girls opt for HR electives, then the total number of boys in the second year is ___?

(A) 50 (B) 51 (C) 52 (D) 53 (E) 54

Question Nos. 74-75 are followed by two statements labeled as I and II. You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from options given below:

(A) If Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(B) If Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(C) If Statement I and Statement II together are sufficient but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question

(D) If either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

(E) Both Statement I and Statement II are insufficient to answer the question.

74. The base of a triangle is 60 cms, and one of the base angles is 60 degrees. What is length of the shortest side of the triangle?

I. The sum of lengths of other two sides is 80 cms.

II. The other base angle is 45 degrees.

75. A, B, C, D, E and F are six integers such that E < F, B < A, A < D < B. C is the greatest integer. Is A the smallest integer?

I. E + B < A + D

II. D < F

Answer question nos. 76 to 78 on the basis of the graph given below.

76. In which month did the company earn maximum profits?

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2 (E) 5

77. In which month did the company witness maximum sales growth?

(A) 9 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 7 (E) 1

78. What were average sales and costs figures for XYZ Co. over the period of ten months?

Answer question nos. 79 through 82 on the basis of the data given below.

Gender Bias is defined as disproportion in percentage of drop-out rate of the two genders.

79. Based on the data above, choose the true statement from the following alternatives:

(A) Gender bias in primary education has consistently decreased over the years.

(B) Gender bias decreases as the students move from primary to secondary classes.

(D) Gender bias was consistently highest for secondary classes.

(E) None of the above.

80. Assume that girls constituted 55% of the students entering school. In which year, as compared to the previous year, number of boys in secondary education would be more than the number of girls?

81. Suppose, every year 7,000 students entered Class , out of which 45% were boys. What was the average number (integer value) of girls, who remained in educational system after elementary classes, from 1996-97 to 2004-05?

(A) 1475 (B) 1573 (C) 1743 (D) 1673 (E) 3853

82. Suppose the total number of students in 1996–97 were 1,000 and the number of students increased every year by 1000, up to 2004–05. The total number of drop outs from primary classes, from 1996–97 to 2004–05, were (approximately) ______?

(A) 18500 (B) 19500 (C) 16000 (D) 24500 (E) 11500

SECTION C: VERBAL AND LOGICAL ABILITY

Directions (83-87): Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

83. Mark Twain was responsible for many striking, mostly cynical ________, such as “Always do right. That will gratify some of the people, and astonish the rest. ________ can sometimes end up as ________, but rarely would someone use them as an _______.

(A) epitaphs, Epitaphs, epigrams, epigraph

(B) epigraphs, Epigraphs, epitaphs, epigraph

(D) epigrams, Epigrams, epigraphs, epitaph

(E) epitaphs, Epitaphs, epigraphs, epigram

84. A candidate in the medical viva voice exam faced a tinge of intellectual ______ when asked to spell ______ gland. The fact that he carried notes on his person would definitely be termed as _______ by faculty, but may be termed as _____ by more generous sections of students.

(A) ambivalence, prostrate, amoral, immoral

(B) ambivalence, prostate, immoral, amoral

(D) ambivalence, prostrate, immoral amoral

(E) ambiguity, prostrate, immoral, amoral

85. It is not ________ democratic that the parliament should be _______ on issues and resort to passing ________ rather than have an open debate on the floor of the house.

(A) quite, quite, ordinances

(B) quite, quiet, ordnances

(D) quite, quiet, ordinances

(E) quiet, quiet, ordinances

86. In a case of acute ______, _______ membranes secrete excessive ______.

(A) sinusitis, mucous, mucus

(B) sinus, mucous, mucous

(D) sinus, mucous, mucus

(E) sinusitis, mucus, mucous

87. If a person makes the statement: “I never speak the truth.” The person can be said to be ______.

(A)speaking the truth.

(B) making a logically contradictory statement.

(D) lying as well as speaking the truth.

(E) partially speaking the truth and partially lying.

Directions (88-90): Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

88. 1. So too it is impossible for there to be proposition of ethics. Proposition cannot express that which is higher.

2. The sense of the world must lie outside the world. In the world everything is as it is, and everything happens as it does happen: in it no value exists- and if it did exist, it would have no value. If there is any value that does have a value, it must lie outside the whole sphere of what happens and is the case. For all that happens and is the case is accidental. What makes it non-accidental cannot lie within the world, since if it did it would itself be accidental. It must lie outside world.

3. It is clear that ethics cannot be put into words. Ethics is transcendental.

4. All propositions are of equal value.

(A) 2-1-3-4 (B) 1-3-4-2 (C) 4-3-1-2 (D) 3-1-2-4 (E) 4-2-1-3

89. 1. The facts all contribute only to setting the problem, not to its solution.

2. How things are in the world is a matter of complete indifference for what is higher. God does not reveal himself in the world.

3. To view the world sub specie aeterni is to view it as a whole- a limited whole. Feeling the world as a limited whole- it is this that is mystical.

4. It is not how things are in the world that is mystical, but that it exists.

(A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 2-1-4-3 (C) 2-1-3-4 (D) 3-1-4-2 (E) 3-4-1-2

90. 1. The operation is what has to be done to one proposition in order to make other out of it.

2. Structure of proposition stands in internal relations to one another.

3. In order to give prominence to these internal relations we can adopt the following mode of expression: we can represent a proposition as the result of an operation that produces it out of other propositions (which are bases of the operation).

4. an operation is the expression of a relation between the structures of its result and of its bases.

(A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 4-3-1-2 (C) 2-1-3-4 (D) 4-1-2-3 (E) 2-3-4-1

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer of the question nos. 91 through 97 that follow.

Number of words in this passage: 552

India is renowned for its diversity. Dissimilitude abounds in every sphere–from the physical elements of its land and people to the intangiable workings of its beliefs and practices. Indeed, given this variety, India itself appears to be not a single entity but an amalgamation, a “constructs” arising from the conjoining of innumerable, discrete parts. Modern scholarship has, quite properly, tended to explore these elements in isolation. (In part, this trend represents the conscious reversal of the stance taken by an earlier generation of scholars whose work reified India into a monolithic entity – a critical element in the much maligned “Orientalist” enterprise.) Nonetheless, the representation of India as a singular “Whole” is not an entirely capricious enterprise; for India is an indentifiable entity, united by – if not born out of – certain deep and pervasive structures. Thus, for example, the Hindu tradition has long maintained a body of mythology that weaves the disparate temples, gods, even geographic landscapes that exist throughout the subcontinent into a unified, albeit syncretic, whole.

In the realm of thought, there is no more pervasive, unifying structure than karma. It is the “doctrine” or “law” that ties actions to results and creates a determinant link between an individual’s status in this life and his or her fate in future lives. Following what is considered to be its appearances in the Upanishads, the doctrine reaches into nearly every corner of Hindu thought. Indeed, its dominance is such in the Hindu world view that karma encompasses, at the same time, life-affirming and life-negating functions; for just as it defines the world in terms of the “positive” function of delineating a doctrine of rewards and punishments, so too it defines the world through its “negative” representation of action as an all but inescapable trap, an unremitting cycle of death and rebirth.

Despite – or perhaps because of – karma’s ubiquity, the doctrine is not easily defined. Wendy Doniger O’Flaherty reports of a scholarly conference devoted to the study of karma that although the participants admitted to a general sense of the doctrine’s parameters, considerable time was in a “lively but ultimately vain attempt to define . . . . karma and rebirth”. The base meaning of the term “karma” (or, more precisely, in its Sanskrit stem form, karman a neuter substantive) is “action”. As a doctrine, karma encompasses a number of quasi-independent concepts: rebirth (punarjanam), consequence (phala, literally “fruit,” a term that suggests the “ripening” of actions into consequences), and the valuation or “ethic-ization” of acts, qualifying them as either “good” (punya or sukaman) or “bad” (papam or duskarman).

In a general way, however, for at least the past two thousand years, the following from the well known text, the Bhagavata Purana) has held true as representing the principal elements of the karma doctrine: “The same person enjoys the fruit of the same sinful or a meritorious act in the next world in the same manner and to the same extent according to the manner and extent to which that (sinful or meritorious) act has been done by him in this world.” Nevertheless, depending on the doctrine’s context, which itself ranges from its appearance in a vast number of literary sources to its usage on the popular level, not all these elements may be present (though in a general way they may be implicit).

91. “Reify” in the passage means:

(A) Reversal of stance

(B) Unitary whole

(D) Unity in diversity

(E) To make real out of abstract

92. “Ethic-ization” in the passage means

(A) Process of making something ethical

(B) Judging and evaluation

(D) Teaching ethics

(E) None of the above

93. Consider the following statements:

1. Meaning of karma is contextual.

2. Meaning of karma is not unanimous.

3. Meaning of karma includes many other quasi-independent concepts.

4. Karma also means actions and their rewards.

Which of the above statements are true?

(A) 1,2,3 (B) 2,3,4 (C) 1,3,4 (D) None of the above (E) All the four are true

94. The base meaning of karma is:

(A) reward and punishment.

(B) only those actions which yield a “phala”.

(D) any action.

(E) None of the above

95. As per the author, which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) India is a diverse country.

(B) Doctrine of karma runs across divergent Hindu thoughts.

(D) Modern scholars have studied Hinduism as a syncretic whole.

(E) Scholars could not resolve the meaning of karma.

96. Which of the following if true, would be required for the concept of karma – as defined in Bhagavata Purana – to be made equally valid across different space-time combinations?

(A) Karma is judged based on the observers’ perception, and hence the observer is a necessary condition for its validity.

(B) Karma is an orientalist concept limited to oriental countries.

(C) Each epoch will have its own understanding of karma and therefore there can not be uniform validity of the concept of karma.

(D) The information of the past action and the righteousness of each action would be embodied in the individual.

(E) Each space-time combination would have different norms of righteousness and their respective expert panels which will judge each action as per those norms.

97. The orientalist perspective, according to the author:

(A) Viewed India as a country of diversity.

(B) Viewed India both as single and diverse entity.

(D) Viewed India in the entirety.

(E) Viewed India as if it was a single and unitary entity devoid of diversity.

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 98 through 101 that follow.

Number of words in this passage: 278

Enunciated by Jung as an integral part of his psychology in 1916 immediately after his unsettling confrontation with the unconscious, the transcendent function was seen by Jung as uniting the opposites, transforming psyche, and central to the individuation process. It also undoubtedly reflects his personal experience in coming to terms with the unconscious. Jung portrayed the transcendent function as operating through symbol and fantasy and mediating between the opposites of consciousness and the unconscious to prompt the emergence of a new, third posture that transcends the two. In exploring the details of the transcendent function and its connection to other Jungian constructs, this work has unearthed significant changes, ambiguities, and inconsistencies in Jung’s writings. Further, it has identified two separate images of the transcendent function: (1) the narrow transcendent function, the function or process within Jung’s pantheon of psychic structures, generally seen as the uniting of the opposites of consciousness and the unconscious from which a new attitude emerges; and (2) the expansive transcendent function, the root metaphor for psyche or being psychological that subsumes Jung’s pantheon and that apprehends the most fundamental psychic activity of interacting with the unknown or other. This book has also posited that the expansive transcendent function, as the root metaphor for exchanges between conscious and the unconscious, is the wellspring from whence flows other key Jungian structures such as the archetypes and the Self, and is the core of the individuation process. The expansive transcendent function has been explored further by surveying other schools of psychology, with both depth and non-depth orientations, and evaluating the transcendent function alongside structures or processes in those other schools which play similar mediatory and/or transitional roles.

98. The above passage is most likely an excerpt from:

(A) A research note

(B) An entry on a psychopathology blog

(D) A scholarly treatise

(E) A newspaper article

99. It can be definitely inferred from the passage above that

(A) The expansive transcendent function would include elements of both the Consciousness and the Unconscious.

(B) Archetypes emerge from the narrow transcendent function.

(C) The whole work, from which this excerpt is taken, primarily concerns itself with the inconsistencies in Jung’s writings.

(D) The transcendent is the core of the individuation process.

(E) Jung’s pantheon of concepts subsumes the root metaphor of psyche.

100. A comparison similar to the distinction between the two images of the transcendent function would be:

(A) raucous: hilarious

(B) synchronicity: ontology

(D) penurious: decrepit

(E) None of the above

101. As per the passage, the key Jungian structure – other than the Self – that emerges from the expansive transcendent function may NOT be expressed as a(n):

(A) Stereotype (B) Anomaly (C) Idealized model (D) Original pattern (E) Epitome

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 102 through 104 that follow.

Number of words in this passage: 371

Deborah Mayo is a philosopher of science who has attempted to capture the implications of the new experimentalism in a philosophically rigorous way. Mayo focuses on the detailed way in which claims are validated by experiment, and is concerned with identifying just what claims are borne out and how. A key idea underlying her treatment is that a claim can only be said to be supported by experiment if the various ways in which the claim could be a fault have been investigated and eliminated. A claim can only be said to be borne out by experiment, and a severe test of a claim, as usefully constructed by Mayo, must be such that the claim would be unlikely to pass it if it were false.

Her idea can be explained by some simple examples. Suppose Snell’s law of refraction of light is tested by some very rough experiments in which very large margins of error are attributed to the measurements of angles of incidence and refraction, and suppose that the results are shown to be compatible with the law within those margins of error. Has the law been supported by experiments that have severely tested it? From Mayo’s perspective the answer is “no” because, owing to the roughness of the measurements, the law of refraction would be quite likely to pass this test even if it were false and some other law differing not too much from Snell’s law true. An exercise  carried out in my school-teaching days serves to drive this point home. My students had conducted some not very careful experiments to test Snell’s law.  then presented them with some alternative laws of refraction that has been suggested in antiquity and mediaeval times, prior to the discovery of Snell’s law, and invited the students to test them with the measurements they had used to test Snell’s law; because of the wide margins of error they had attributed to their measurements, all of these alternative laws pass the test. This clearly brings out the point that the experiments in question did not constitute a severe test of Snell’s law. The law would have passed the test even if it were false and one of the historical alternatives true.

102. Which of the following conclusion can be drawn from the passage?

(A) Precise measurement is a sufficient condition to ensure validity of conclusions resulting from an experiment.

(B) Experimental data might support multiple theoretical explanations at the same time, hence validity of theories needs to be tested further.

(C) Precise measurement is both a necessary and sufficient condition to ensure validity of conclusions resulting from an experiment.

(D) Precise measurement along with experimenter’s knowledge of the theory underpinning the experiment is sufficient to ensure the validity of conclusions drawn from experiments.

(E) All of these

103. As per Mayo’s perspective, which of the following best defines the phrase “scientific explanation?

(A) One which is most detailed in its explanation of natural phenomena.

(B) One which survives examinations better than other explanations.

(D) One which refutes other explanations convincingly.

(E) All of these.

104. The author’s use of Snell’s law of refraction to illustrate Mayo’s perspective can best said to be

(A) Contrived. (B) Premeditated. (C) Superfluous. (D) Inadequate. (E) Illustrative.

Directions (105-112): Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow.

Question No (105-106): According to recent reports, CEOs of large organizations are paid more than CEOs of small organizations. It does not seem fair that just because a CEO is heading a big organization s/he should be paid more. CEOs’ salary should be related to performance, especially growth in terms of sales and profits. Of course, big organizations are more complex than the small, but all CEOs require significant amount of energy and time in managing organizations. There is no proof that CEOs of big organizations are more stressed than CEOs of small organizations. All CEOs should be paid according to their performance.

105. A person seeking to refute the argument might argue that

(A) CEOs should be paid equally.

(B) Managing big organization is more challenging than small.

(D) CEOs, who travel more should be paid more.

(E) Highly qualified CEOs should be paid more because they have acquired difficult education.

106. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the speaker’s argument?

(A) CEOs of small organizations come from good educational background.

(B) CEOs of big organizations are very difficult to hire.

(D) CEOs in big organisation take much longer to reach top, as compared to their counterparts in small organizations.

(E) Big orgainsations contribute more towards moral development of society.

Question No (107-108): Hindi ought to be the official language of India. There is no reason for the government to spend money printing documents in different languages, just to cater to people who cannot read/write Hindi. The government has better ways to spend tax payers’ money. People across India should read/write Hindi or learn it at the earliest.

107. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker’s argument the most?

(A) The government currently translates official documents into more than eighteen languages.

(B) Hindi is the most difficult language in the world to speak.

(D) Making Hindi the official language is a politically unpopular idea.

(E) People who are multilingual usually pay maximum taxes.

108. United Nations members contribute funds, proportionate to their population, for facilitating smooth functioning of the UN. By 2010. India, being the most populous nation on the planet, would contribute the maximum amount to the UN. Therefore, official language of United Nations should be changed to Hindi.

Which of the following is true?

(A) The point above contradicts the speaker’s argument.

(B) The point above is similar to speaker’s argument.

(D) The point above extends the speaker’s argument.

(E) The point above strengthens the speaker’s argument.

Question No (109-110): The Bistupur Sakchi corner needs a speed-breaker. Loyola school children cross this intersection, on their way to the school, and many a times do not check out for traffic. I get to read regular reports of cars and other vehicles hitting children. I know that speed-breakers are irritating for drivers, and I know that children cannot be protected from every danger, but this is one of the worst intersections in town. There needs to be a speed-breaker so that vehicles have to slow down and the children be made safer.

109. Which of the following arguments is used in the above passage?

(A) Emotive–referring to the safety of children to get people interested

(B) Analogy–comparing the intersection to something dangerous

(D) Personalization–telling the story of one child’s near accident at the intersection

(E) Attack–pointing out people who are against speed-breakers as being uncaring about children

110. According to a recent research conducted by the district road planning department, ten percent students come with parents in cars, twenty percent students use auto-rickshaws, twenty percent students use taxis, forty percent students use the school buses and ten percent students live in the hostel inside the school.

Which of the following is true about the above paragraph?

(A) It extends speaker’s argument using analogy.

(B) It contradicts the speaker’s argument using statistical data.

(D) It is similar to speaker’s argument.

(E) It concludes speaker’s argument by using personalization.

Questions No (111-112): History, if viewed as a repository not merely of anecdotes or chronology, could produce a decisive transformation in the image of science by which we are now possessed. That image has previously been drawn, even by scientists themselves, mainly from the study of finished scientific achievements as these are recorded in the classics and, more recently, in the textbooks from which each new scientific generation learns to practice its trade.

111. Which of the following best summarizes the above paragraph?

(A) Scientific achievements are recorded in classics and text books.

(B) Different ways of looking at history can produce altogether different knowledge.

(D) Text books may be biased.

(E) All of above.

112. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

(A) History of science presents a scientific way of looking at scientific developments and thus contributes to progress in science.

(B) History of science should contain only the chronology of the scientific achievements.

(D) History of science should purposely present different images of science to people.

(E) History of science can present multiple interpretations to people regarding the process of scientific developments.

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 113 through 118 that follow.

Number of words in this passage: 832

Every conscious mental state has a qualitative character that we refer to as mood. We are always in a mood that is pleasurable or unpleasurable to some degree. It may be that bad moods relate to their being too positive reinforcement in a person’s current life and too many punishments. In any case, moods are distinguished from emotions proper by not being tied to any specific object. But, this distinction is not watertight, in that emotions need not be directed at objects that are completely specific (we can be angry just at people generally) while there is always a sense of a mood having a general objective like the state of the world at large. Moods manifest themselves in positive or negative feelings that are tied to health, personality, or perceived quality of life. Moods can also relate to emotions proper, as in the aftermath of an emotional incident such as the failure to secure a loan. A mood on this basis is the mind’s judgment on the recent past. For Goldie, emotion can bubble up and down within a mood, while an emotion can involve characteristics that are non-object specific.

What is important for marketing is that moods colour outlook and bias judgements. Hence the importance of consumer confidence surveys, as consumer confidence typically reflects national mood. There is mood – congruence when thoughts and actions fall inline with mood. As Goleman says, there is a “constant stream of feeling” that runs “in perfect to our steam of thought”. Mood congruence occurs because a positive mood evokes pleasant associations that lighten subsequent appraisals (thoughts) and actions, while a negative arouses pessimistic associations that influence future judgement and behaviour. When consumers are in a good mood, they are more optimistic about buying more confident in buying, and much more willing to tolerate things like waiting in line. On the other hand, being in a mood makes buying behaviour in the “right mood” by the use of music and friendly staff or, say, opens bakeries in shopping malls that delight the passer-by with the smell of fresh bread.

Thayer views moods as a mixture of biological and psychological influences and, as such, a sort of clinical thermometer, reflecting all the internal and external events that influence us. For Thayer, the key components of mood are energy and tension in different combinations. A specific mixture of energy and tension, together with the thoughts they influence, produces moods. He discusses four mood states:

i Calm–energy: he regards this as the optimal mood of feeling good.

ii Clam–tiredness: he regards this as feeling a little tired without any stress, which can be pleasant.

iii Tense-energy: involves a low level of anxiety suited to a fight-or-flight disposition.

iv Tense-tiredness: is a mixture of fatigue and anxiety, which underlines the unpleasant feeling of depression.

People generally can “feel down” or “feel good” as a result of happenings in the world around them. This represents the national mood. People feel elated when the national soccer team wins an international match or depressed when their team has lost. An elated mood of calm-energy is an optimistic mood, which is good for business. Consumers, as socially involved individuals, are deeply influenced by the prevailing social climate. Marketers recognize the phenomenon and talk about the national mood being, say for or against conspicuous consumption. Moods do change, though. Writing early in the nineteenth century, Toqeville describes an American elite embarrassed by the ostentation of material display; in the “Gilded Age”, sixty years later, many were only too eager to embrace a materialistic vulgarity. The problem lies in anticipating changes in national mood, since a change in mood affects everything from buying of equities to the buying of houses and washing machines. Thayer would argue that we should be interested in national events that are likely to produce a move toward a tense-tiredness state or toward a calm-energy state, since these are the polar extremes and are more likely to influence behaviour. Artists sensitive to national moods express the long-term changes. An example is the long – term emotional journey from Charles Dickens’s depiction of the death of little Nell to Oscar Wilde’s cruel flippancy about it. “One would have to have a heart of stone not to laugh at the death of little Nell”, which reflects the mood change from high Victorian sentimentality to the acerbic cynicism of the end of the century, as shown in writers like Thomas Hardy and artists like Aubrey Beardsley.

Whenever the mind is not fully absorbed, consciousness is no longer focused and ordered. Under such conditions the mind falls into dwelling on the unpleasant, with a negative mood developing.

Csikszentimihalyi argues that humans need to keep consciousness fully active is what influences a good deal of consumer behaviour. Sometimes it does not matter what we are shopping for – the point is to shop for anything, regardless, as consuming is one way to respond to the void in consciousness when there is nothing else to do.

113. Which one of the following statements best summarizes the above passage?

(A) The passage highlights how moods affect nations.

(B) The passage draws distinction between moods and emotions.

(D) Thayer categorized moods into four states.

(E) The passage highlights the importance of moods and emotions in marketing.

114. What is “moods congruence”?

(A) When moods and emotions are synchronized.

(B) When emotions are synchronous with actions and thoughts.

(D) When moods are synchronous with thoughts but not with action.

(E) When moods are synchronous with action but not with thought.

115. Implication and Proposition are defined as follows:

Implication: a statement which follows from the given text.

Proposition: a statement which forms a part of the given text.

Consider the two statements below and decide whether they are implications or propositions.

115. Implication and Proposition are defined as follows:

Implication: a statement which follows from the given text.

Proposition: a statement which forms a part of the given text.

Consider the two statements below and decide whether they are implications or propositions.

I. The marketers should understand and make use of moods and emotions in designing and selling products and services.

II. Consuming is nothing but way of filling the void in consciousness.

(A) Both statements are implications.

(B) First is implication second is proposition.

(D) First is proposition, second is implication.

(E) Both are neither implication nor proposition.

116. Which statements from the ones given below are correct?

1. In general, emotions are object specific.

2. In general, moods are not object specific.

3. Moods and emotions are same.

4. As per Thayer, moods are a mix of biological and psychological influence.

(A) 1,2,4 (B) 1,2,3

(E) All four are right

117. The statement “Moods provide energy for human actions” is ______.

(A) always right

(B) always wrong

(D) contradictory.

(E) sometimes right.

118. Which of the following is the closest to “conspicuous consumption” in the passage?

(A) Audible consumption

(B) Consumption driven by moods and emotions

(D) Private but not public consumption

(E) consumption of material items of impressing others

Directions (119-120): Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow.

119. The author reflects on the concept of Blue Ocean Strategy. He explains that this concept delivers an instinctive framework for developing uncontested market space and making the competition irrelevant. The author remarks that Blue Ocean Strategy is about having the best mix of attributes that result in creation of uncontested market space and high growth, and not about being the best.

The above paragraph appears to be an attempt at

(A) defining Blue Ocean Strategy.

(B) developing the framework for Blue Ocean Strategy.

(D) highlighting how Blue Ocean Strategy leads to better returns.

(E) None of above.

120. Goodricke Group Ltd is planning to give top priority to core competence of production and marketing of tea in 2007. The company intends to increase the production of orthodox varieties of tea. Goodricke is planning to invest Rs.10 crore to modernize the factories. The company has announced a net profit of Rs.5.49 crore for 2006 as against Rs.3.76 crore in 2005.

Which of the following can be deduced from the caselet?

(A) Core competence can be used for furthering company’s interests.

(B) Production and marketing is core competence of Goodricke Group.

(D) Core competence leads to modernization.

(E) Goodricke has given top priority to production because it has earned net profit of Rs.5.49 core.

Answer key

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (E) 5. (E) 6. (A)

7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (B)

13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (E) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (B)

19. (C) 20. (D) 21. (E) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (B)

25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (ignore)

31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (E)

37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (E) 40. (B) 41. (B) 42. (B)

43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (E)

49. (D) 50. (E) 51. (E) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (ignore)

55. (B) 56. (B) 57. (E) 58. (B) 59. (E) 60. (C)

61. (E) 62. (B) 63. (E) 64. (E) 65. (A) 66. (B)

67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (B) 71. (E) 72. (E)

73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (A) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (B)

79. (E) 80. (Ignore) 81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (B)

85. (D) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (D) 89. (E) 90. (D)

91. (E) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (D) 96. (A)

97. (E) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (B) 101. (B) 102. (C)

103. (C) 104. (E) 105. (B) 106. (A) 107. (D) 108. (D)

109. (A) 110. (B) 111. (B) 112. (E) 113. (E) 114. (C)

115. (A) 116. (A) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (C) 120. (A)

SNAP 2010 Quantitative and Data interpretation and Sufficiency

ankur@takshzilabeta.com — Mon, 20 Dec 2010 13:24:40 +0000

Q81. In a retail outlet the average revenue was Rs. 10,000 per day over a 30 day period. During this period the average daily revenue on weekends (total 8 days ) was Rs 20,000 per day . What was the average daily revenue on weekdays

Answer: 6364

Solution: total money = 10,000 x 30=30000

Money on weekends = 20,000 x 8= 160000

money on weekdays= total-weekend = 300000-160000=140000

money on each weekday= 140000/22 =6363.something

Q82. Two different prime numbers X and Y , both greater than 2 , then which of the following must be true

Answer: X+Y NOT = 87

Solution: Two prime numbers greater than 2 must be odd , sum of two odd numbers must always be even thus X+Y = 87 is never possible

Q83. It takes 6 hours for pump A , used alone , to fill a tank of water . Pump B used alone takes 8 hours to fill the same tank. A, B and another pump C all together fill the tank in 2 hours. How long would pump C take , used alone to fill the tank .

Answer: 4.8

Solution: Assume the capacity of the tank is 24 liters (lcm of 6, 8, 2, ). Pipe A rate is 4 liters per hour , Pipe B rate is 3 liters per hour ,

A+B+C rate is 12 liters per hour , A and B account for 7 , C must be 5 liters per hour

To fill a 24 liter tank pipe C will take 24/5 = 4. 8 hrs

Q84. A swimming pool can be filled by Pipe A in 3 hours and Pipe B in 6 hours, Each pump working on its own. At 9 am Pump A is started . At what time will the swimming pool be filled if pump B is started at 10 am ?

Ans : 11:20 am

Solution : Assume the tank to be of 6 liters , A rate is 2 liters per hour and that of B is 1 liter per hour . At 9 am Pump A is started and at 10 am Pump B , in this 1 hour pump a will supply 2 liters of water , now tank needs 4 more liters to get full. Both the pumps working together supply 3 liters per hour and to fill 4 liters will take 4/3= 1.33 hours = 1 hours 20 minutes

Q85. The sum of prime numbers that are greater than 60 , but less than 70 is

Answer: 128

Solution: The answer can not be greater than 140 , the only option is 128

Q86. 0 (+2) 2(+4)6 (+6)12(+8)20(+10)30(+12)42(+14)56

Q87. A bakery opened with its daily supply of 40 dozen rolls. Half of the rolls were sold by noon, and 60% of the remaining rolls were sold between noon and closing time. How many dozen rolls were left unsold

Answer: 8

Half of 40 is 20 , 20 sold 20 remaining and 60% of 20 is 12 so 8 left.

Q 88. Stuart , Jack and Leo are colleagues working in a plant . Stuart and jack can do a work in 10 days, jack and leo can do the same work in 15 days while stuart and leo can do it in 12 days. All of them started the work together / After two days , leo was shifted to some other work . How many daus will stuart and jack take to finsh the rest of the work

Answer: 7.5

Q89. The missing numbers in the below series would be 1:1 (1:1), 8:4 (2:1) ,9:27 (1:3) , 64:16 (4:1 ) , 25:125 (1:5) 216:36 (6:1 ) , 49:343 (1:7 )

Answer: 216:136

Q90. The difference between the value of a number cincreased by 25% and the value of the original number decreased by 30% is 22 . What is the original number

Answer: 40

Solution: try the options , get the answer in less than 30 seconds

(5/4) X- (7/10)X=22

91. Running at the same constant rate , 6 identical machines can produce a total of 180 bottles per hour. How many bottles could 15 such machines produce in 30 minutes ?

Answer: 225

Solution 180X(5/2)x(1/2)= 225

Q92. A number whose fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its fourth part diminished by 10 is

Answer: 280

Solution: plug the options

(1/5)X+4= (1/4)X-10

Q93. Which one of the following will completely divide (461+462+463+464)

Answer: 10

IIFT 2010 results out

ankur@takshzilabeta.com — Mon, 20 Dec 2010 12:41:44 +0000

on the IIFT main page

Scorecard and List of Candidates for GD/PI

Best of Luck .

SNAP 2010 English Answers

ankur@takshzilabeta.com — Mon, 20 Dec 2010 11:48:44 +0000

SNAP 2010 General english

Q41-44 (Reading comprehension passage and questions)

Q41. According to the passage , modernists are changing literary criticism by

answer: Seeing literature from fresh point of view

Support: “We are able to see in literary works the perspective we bring. Perspective is a point of view

Q42. The author quptes James Jouce , Virginia Woolf and D.H Lawrence primarily in order to show that

Answer: none of the above

Support: The author has quoted them in order to illustrate the importance of emancipation of women amongst the modernists . from the passage

” “The emancipation of women” , James Joyce told his friends ” has caused the greatest revolution in our time “. Other modernists agree”

Q43. The author’s attitude towards women’s Reformation of literary canons can best be described as one of

Answer: Endorsement

Support: ” …and now that women are enough to make a difference in reforming canons and interpreting literature , the landscapes of literary history and features of individual books have begun to change ” . No negative words so Antagonism and ambivalence is ruled out , since the author is talking about it it is unlikely that he is indifferent to the topic .

Q44. Which of the following best describes the contents of the passage ?

answer: Transforming literature

Support: perspective changes ” features of individual books have begun to change” .

Q45. Choose the correct sentence

Answer: An anthropologist by profession , he is also a trained classical singer.

46 to 49

Fill in the blanks and choose the correct definition of punctuations

Q46. Apostrophe is used to indicate possession

Q47 . Period is used to mark the end of declarative and imperative sentences

Q48. When a subordinate clause is followed by the main clause , comma is required .

Q49. When no connecting word is used to connect two independent clauses , one should use Semi colon

Correct proverb

Q50. Answer: Let the sleeping dogs lie

Q51 . Answer: A fool and his money are parted easily

52-57

Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms

Q52. If someone said , “you are the bomb!” she or he probably would be telling you

answer : You are exceptional and/or wonderful

Q53. When someone is described as being “flighty” , the person described is probably

answer: Indecisive and irresponsible

Q54. What does ” to take down the enemy” mean ?

answer: To kill the enemy

Q55. What does , ” Dime a dozen” mean ?

answer: Anything that is common and easy to get

Q56 . ” Throw the baby out with the bath water” means

a. Throw out the good things with the unwanted

Q57. ” Bart up the wrong tree” means

Answer: Make the wrong choice

Q58. I rode my bike yesterday , so my legs are sore

Q59. Insulation was fitted to prevent further heat loss from the building

Q60. A high rate of inflation makes exports difficult

Q61. My boat has two Sails

Q62. Can you give me further details ,please ?

Q63. A baby dear is called a Fawn

Q64. The greatest discovery of my generation is that a human being can alter his life by altering his attitude.

Q65. When it comes to staying young , a mind-life beats a face-lift any day

Q66. None are so empty as those who are full of themselves

Q67. Your most unhappy customers are your greatest source of worry/Learning

technically nothing to separate the two but the tone suggests Learning

Q68 . antonym Eulogize: Criticize

Q69. Synonym Pedantic : Finicky

Q70. Pyrophobia means fear of fire

71-72 Kangaroo words

Masculine Maxxxlxxe

Respite Resxxtz

Q73. Paper weight and weight lifter

74-75 , Choose the word that cannot be coupled with the given word

Q74. Outshine , Outnumber , Outrun , OutBug

Q75. Newsletter , Newsstand , Newspaper , Newsweek

Q76. I did not see you at the office party

77-78 Fill in the blanks with the correct simile

Q77. As cool as a cucumber

Q78 . As fresh as a daisy

Q79. Choose the option that does not belong

Answer: Clear

Consort , Spouse , partner are all synonyms

Q80 Nerd means

nerd
noun informal
a foolish or contemptible person who lacks social skills or is boringly studious : one of those nerds who never asked a girl to dance.
• an intelligent, single-minded expert in a particular technical discipline or profession : he single-handedly changed the Zero image of the computer nerd into one of savvy Hero

SNAP 2010 : Analysis /Answer key

ankur@takshzilabeta.com — Sun, 19 Dec 2010 16:28:18 +0000

SNAP 2010 is done and over and unlike the CAT there is no gag order on discussing it , so here is our take on the test .

The Test was easy

For any serious contender this was a dream paper , where question after question required the most basic information and thinking . If this is not considered easy i do not know what is . Since the test was on the easiest of the easy side , what would separate the aspirants is the speed in solving these questions and hence high attempt and high accuracy .

Break Up of Marks

Total marks No of Questions.

General English 40 40

QA & DI , DS 40 40

GA,GK,CA,BS 40 40

AR, LR 60 30

the SNAP 2010 GK Section

Q1. Name the Jailed Chinese pro-democracy activist who won this year’s Nobel Peace prize for his “long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights in China”

answer : Liu Xiaobo

Comment: Been in the newspaper , for getting the award , then not being able to attend the awards because of chinese restrictions , and for some actiists demonstrations in china , . And “The Nobel Awards” being such a global event , well covered in all major news dailies and online magazines , the question would be definitely rated EASY

Q2. Which government is behind the “The Nalanda Propasal” , proposing Nalanda as an ideal site for establishing a 21st century learning institution.

Answer: Singapore

Comment : No detailed coverage in mainstream media , the kind of information you will know only if you read the CSR daily. Rating: Difficult

Q3. Jimmy wales and Larry Sanger are known for founding

Answer: Wikipedia

Comment : go visit wikipedia now and in the top banner you will see an appeal for donations from the Wikipedia founder . And since Wikipedia is such a daily tool for most of us , Rating : Easy

Q4. The year 2010 is represented in Roman numerals as

Answer : MMX

Roman Numerals are written as combinations of the seven letters in the table below. The letters can be written as capital (XVI) or lower-case letters (xvi).

Roman Numerals
I = 1	C = 100
V = 5	D = 500
X = 10	M = 1000
L = 50

Comment: Is the kind of information that everybody is familiar with but may not remember in a crunch Rating : Tricky

Q5. IN which country is the seat of the United Nations International Court of Justice ?

Answer: Netherlands

Comment: Since information (location , purpose , heads ) about all major world organizations and agencies is commonly tested and the info is there on our blog , this question is rated : Easy

Q6. In 1965 GOrdon Moore , Co-founder of Intel , made aprediction about the future of computer processing. What does his prediction , known as Moore;s Law say ?

Answer: Computing ability will double every 18 months to two years

Comment : Any body from the computer science background show know this , often quoted in major dailies when they talk about computers or the speed of change of technology. Rated Easy

Q7. At 60 miles an hour the loudest noises in this new Rolls-Royce comes from the electrick clock” Who wrote this famous advertising headline

Answer: David Ogilvy

Comment: David ogilvy is often considered the father of Advertising and is a famous enough personality , if you have been following such . Rating : Difficult

Q8. His life’s motto was ” simple living and high thinking” . He was one of the……….Who is this towering personality

Answer :Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Comment : A major figure in pre-independence history , He is definitely part of the school history syllabus and therefore rated easy

Q9. Eustace fernandes , who passed away in early 2010 was the much admired creator of

answer : Amul Girl

Comment: People who are avid readers of Brand magazines and follow what happens in the advertising industry would be familiar this . Since that makes up a small percentage of test takers this question is rated Difficult

Q10. Find the mismatch

Answer: Somdev Devvarman is a tennis player , covered adequately in Major news dailies , especially because of the mentions in the Commonwealth and the Asian games. Most people read the sports page even if they do no read the editorial and thus this question is rated Easy :

Q11. Who designed the new Rupee symbol

Answer

Rating Easy since the symbo was unveiled this year itself and was in the news across all media .

Q12. What exactly is Cloud computing

Answer: Computing Resources that can be accessed on demand , like electricity from utility

Comment : Very easy for anybody from the IT , Computer science background , Has been given enough focus by news media too so the rating is Easy

Cloud computing for dummies

Q13. What is NDM -1

Answer: A bacterial gene called New Delhi Metallo-lactamase-1, dubbed the “superbug” because of being resistant to most antibiotics.

Comment: NDM -1 was on the front pages of most major news dailies for a couple of days at least , discovered in europe and traced back to poor practices in India , The Indian side called it an attempt to tarnish the reputation of Indian medical standards since they were eating into European Health care revenues. Rated Easy

Q14. “Niyamgiri hills” was in the news because of

Answer: Vedanta’s failed mining proposal in the area inhabited by Dongria Kondh tribals

Comment: Environment ministry clamped down on Vedanta and it made very big news for a prolonged period of time , add to this Rahul gandhi’s picture with Dongri Kondh tribals made a splash too . Rated easy for being big news for many days

q15. Match the following husband-and-wife team with the awards they have received for exemplary work

Bill and Melinda Gates ——UN population Award

Sankarlingam and Krishnamal ——-Right to Livelihood award

Prakash and Manadkini Amte ——Magsaysay Award

Peter and Rosemary Grant ——Kyoto Prize

Comment : Since who won what is often tested in G.K this question should be rated easy , knowing two out of four would have been enough to solve the question.

Q16. What is Renminbi ?

Answer: It is the official currency of the People’s Republic of China , whose principal unit is Yuan

Comment: China major country , knowledge of World currencies expected , Rating Easy

Q17. Embraer is one of the world leaders in the manufacturing of Coroprate/business jets. Embraer belongs to which country

Answer: Brazil

Comment: Rating difficult. Very specific piece of information and a not a company that everybody is aware of (Coke , Mercedes , Sony , Toyota )

Q18. The UID Project, headed by Nandan Nilekani has been renamed as

Answer: Adhaar

Comment: UID project has been in the news consistently this past year, most recently when the first batches of the IDs were given to village folk in Maharashtra by Sonia Gandhi herself. Thusly rated easy

q19. India’s first SEZ deciated to Aerospace industry has been launched at

Answer: Hallargi

Comment: Rating difficult , in the news last year , that too not too much so difficult for those who do not follow business information regularly

Q20 . The prime purpose of WTO is to promote

Answer: Multilateral Trade

Comment: Major World organization , expected in tests , very very easy

Q21. On March 5 , 2010 , which of the following personalities from India is among 19 members chosen by UN chief Ban Ki-moon for a high level advisory group on Climate change financing tasked with mobilizing funds pledged during the Copenhagen meet to tackle global wrming ?

Answer : Montek Singh Ahluwalia

Comment: Definitely difficult , obscure piece of information . Even finding this information took time

The List of All members

Q22. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has termed the 11th five year plan as

Answer: India’s Education plan

Comment : Rating is difficult , for again the information is not something you will see day after day in the headlines unlike a lot of other questions in the section.

Q23. Which of the following milestones was achieved by New Zealand Cricket team captain Daniel vettori

Answer: 3000 runs and 300 wickets in Test Cricket

Comment : Easy for cricket lovers , difficult for the rest of the world

Q24. What is the full term “NPA” as used in banking environment ?

Answer: Non performing asset

comment : Easy for regular reader of the business section , NPA refers to bad assets controlled by banks and financial orgninzations

Q25. Which of the following contributes the highest share of revenue earned by the Government of India ?

Answer:

Comment: Difficult

Q26. Which country was world’s largest exporter with merchandise exports $14.7 trillion in 2008 , according to the WTO ?

Answer:

Comment: Easy if you have been specifically preparing for such data , difficult otherwise

Q27. Where in India , recently has the Clinton Foundation , founded by former US president BillClinton , firmed up its plans to srt up world’s largest silar park ?

Answer: Gujarat

Comment : In the news last year , Rated difficult for not being mainstream news , average difficulty for followers of business news

Q28 . Which three public sector lenders have enetred recently into a joint venture agreement for setting up a banking subsidary , India BIA Bank Bhd , In Malaysia ?

Answer: Bank of Baroda , Indian Overseas bank , and Andhra Bank

Comment : Difficult , unless you are a regular reader of the business and finance sections of the newspapers

Q29. What is the campaign of Union and State government against the Naxalite movement called ?

Answer: Operation Green Hunt

Comment : Rated easy since news about the Naxal movement and the Indian governments reaction to it have been well chronicled by all kind of media , not knowing this is a sin .

q 30 . The instrument used to measure the speed of the wind is

Answer: Anemometer

Comment : Altimeter is for height , Chrono is for time , leaving 2 to guess from , rated tricky

Q31. Which of the following countries is the first in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming

Answer: Finland

Comment: Difficult , easy for those who have been researching Global warming and related topics

Q32. Amino Acids are found in

Answer: Proteins

Comment : Very easy , school chemistry , biology

q33. Which among the following is the world’s largest mill producing country ?

Answer: India

Comment : Very very easy (have you not seen the cows on the roads)

Q34. A group of words that share the same spelling and the same pronunciation but have different meanings , e.g l

answer: Homonyms

Comment: Easy if you been preparing for english tests

Q35. The national flag of India was designed by

Answer: Pingali Venkayya

Comment: Rating difficult , tricky . Looks easy but unlikely piece of information to be found in most sources.

Q36. In 1679, Denis papin……….what was the invention ?

Answer: Pressure cooker

Q37 . Mr Ratan Tata refused a job with one of the following companies to join Tata Steel in 1962

Answer: IBM

Comment : Difficult unless you are into reading Autobiographies of famous business heads .

Q38. Which of the following have owned Land rover brand before Tata motors

Answer: All of BMW , British Leyland , British aerospace have owned the Land rover over the years

Comment : Difficult for most , easy for car lovers and followers of top car brands

Q39. Who is known as ” The mand who broke the bank of England after he made a reported $ 1 billion during the 1992 Black wednesday UK currency crisis

Answer: George soros

Comment: Rating difficult

Q40 . Who is the current dean of Harvard business school ?

Answer: Nitin Nohria

Comment: Easy , Indian at the head of the most reputed academic organization in the world is major news .

SNAP 2010 General english

Q41-44 (Reading comprehension passage and questions)

Q41. According to the passage , modernists are changing literary criticism by

answer: Seeing literature from fresh point of view

Support: “We are able to see in literary works the perspective we bring. Perspective is a point of view

Q42. The author quptes James Jouce , Virginia Woolf and D.H Lawrence primarily in order to show that

Answer: none of the above

Support: The author has quoted them in order to illustrate the importance of emancipation of women amongst the modernists . from the passage

” “The emancipation of women” , James Joyce told his friends ” has caused the greatest revolution in our time “. Other modernists agree”

Q43. The author’s attitude towards women’s Reformation of literary canons can best be described as one of

Answer: Endorsement

Q44. Which of the following best describes the contents of the passage ?

answer: Transforming literature

Support: perspective changes ” features of individual books have begun to change” .

Q45. Choose the correct sentence

Answer: An anthropologist by profession , he is also a trained classical singer.

46 to 49

Fill in the blanks and choose the correct definition of punctuations

Q46. Apostrophe is used to indicate possession

Q47 . Period is used to mark the end of declarative and imperative sentences

Q48. When a subordinate clause is followed by the main clause , comma is required .

Q49. When no connecting word is used to connect two independent clauses , one should use Semi colon

Correct proverb

Q50. Answer: Let the sleeping dogs lie

Q51 . Answer: A fool and his money are parted easily

52-57

Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms

Q52. If someone said , “you are the bomb!” she or he probably would be telling you

answer : You are exceptional and/or wonderful

Q53. When someone is described as being “flighty” , the person described is probably

answer: Indecisive and irresponsible

Q54. What does ” to take down the enemy” mean ?

answer: To kill the enemy

Q55. What does , ” Dime a dozen” mean ?

answer: Anything that is common and easy to get

Q56 . ” Throw the baby out with the bath water” means

a. Throw out the good things with the unwanted

Q57. ” Bart up the wrong tree” means

Answer: Make the wrong choice

Q58. I rode my bike yesterday , so my legs are sore

Q59. Insulation was fitted to prevent further heat loss from the building

Q60. A high rate of inflation makes exports difficult

Q61. My boat has two Sails

Q62. Can you give me further details ,please ?

Q63. A baby dear is called a Fawn

Q64. The greatest discovery of my generation is that a human being can alter his life by altering his attitude.

Q65. When it comes to staying young , a mind-life beats a face-lift any day

Q66. None are so empty as those who are full of themselves

Q67. Your most unhappy customers are your greatest source of worry/Learning

technically nothing to separate the two but the tone suggests Learning

Q68 . antonym Eulogize: Criticize

Q69. Synonym Pedantic : Finicky

Q70. Pyrophobia means fear of fire

71-72 Kangaroo words

Masculine Maxxxlxxe

Respite Resxxtz

Q73. Paper weight and weight lifter

74-75 , Choose the word that cannot be coupled with the given word

Q74. Outshine , Outnumber , Outrun , OutBug

Q75. Newsletter , Newsstand , Newspaper , Newsweek

Q76. I did not see you at the office party

77-78 Fill in the blanks with the correct simile

Q77. As cool as a cucumber

Q78 . As fresh as a daisy

Q79. Choose the option that does not belong

Answer: Clear

Consort , Spouse , partner are all synonyms

Q80 Nerd means

More! More! GK For SNAP

nishant — Tue, 23 Nov 2010 10:33:50 +0000

Commonwealth group:

The commonwealth Group previously known as British Commonwealth is an organization of 54 sovereign states. All these countries except two ( Mozambique and Rwanda) were formerly part of British Empire.

Headquarters of Commonwealth Group is at London.

Head of Commonwealth Group is Queen Elizabeth II.

Secretary-general of Commonwealth Group is Kamalesh Sharma.

Chairperson-in-office of Commonwealth is Kamla Prasad.

First Commonwealth games were held in 1930.

The Flag of Commonwealth consists of the symbol of Commonwealth Secretariat, represented by a gold globe surrounded by rays on a dark blue field and was officially adopted in 1976.

Some Facts related to 2010 Commonwealth Games:

XIX Commonwealth games were held in new Delhi in October 2010. A total of 6081 athletes from 71 Commonwealth nations and dependencies competed in 21 sports and 272 events.

The mascot of the games was “SHERA”.

It was the largest multi-sport international event to be held in India after 1951 and 1982 Asian games.

The opening and closing ceremonies of the event was held at the jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi. It was for the first time that commonwealth games were held in India and second time in Asia after 1998 Kuala Lumpur Malaysia 1998.

The official song of the games was “Jiyo Utho Badho Jeeto” composed by A.R.Rahman.

All member nations of Commonwealth Group participated in these games except Fiji (which is suspended from the Commonwealth) and Tokelau (which did not send a team).

Australia topped the tally with 74 Golds and total of 177 medals. While India put up a strong display with 38 Gold medals and ended in second position. While England ended in 3rd position with 37 Gold medals.

President of Commonwealth Games federation is Mike Fenell.

The Queen’s Baton relay began when the baton, left Buckingham Palace London on 29th October 2009 and reached New Delhi at opening ceremony of 2010 Games. The Queen’s baton relay contains Queen Elizabeth’s message to all participating athletes in games.

The baton was designed by Michael Foley.

Prince Charles, Prince of Wales and Pratibha Patil, president of India officially declared the games open.

Chief Guests of Opening Ceremonies were a) Mohamed Nasheed, President of Maldives

b) Marcus Stephen, President of Nauru

c) and Prince Albert II of Monaco.

Kabaddi was a demonstration sport at games.

Organizers had removed triathlon and basketball from the games.

The games closed on 14th October 2010 and commonwealth games flag was handed over to the representatives of Glasgow, Scotland where the 2014 XX Commonwealth games will be held.

Winner of Oscar Awards 2010

Best Actor: Jeff Bridges (Crazy Heart)

Best Actress: Sandra Bullock (The Blind side)

Best Actor in a supporting Role: Christopher Waltz(Inglorious Basterds)

Best Actress in a supporting Role: MoNique (Precious).

Best Animated feature file: UP

Best Director: Kathryn Bigelow (Hurt-locker).

Best Foreign Language Film: The Secret in their Eyes (from Argentina).

Best Music (original score): Michael Giachhino (UP)

Best Movie: Hurt Locker

Best Short film animated: Logorama

Best Art Direction: Rick Carter and Robert stromberg (for Avatar).

Best Cinematography: Mauro Fiore (for Avatar).

India’s movie sent to Oscars 2010 in Best Foreign Film Category: Harishchandrachi Factory(Marathi).

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

1. The previous secretary – general of United Nations belonged to which country?

a) S. Korea b) India c) Egypt d) Ghana

2. Who among the following is the winner of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2005?

a) Rahul Dravid b) Anju Bobby George

c) Pankaj Advani d) Jeev Milkha Singh

3. Who among the following is the author of the book “Sacred Games”?

a) Vikram Chandra b) Vikram Seth

c) Salman Rushdie d) Arundhati Roy

4. Who is the first golf player from India to be ranked in World top 50 gold players?

a) Jyoti Randhawa b) Shiv Kapur

c) Arjun Atwal d) Jeev Milkha Singh

5. Who is the chairman of the National knowledge commission?

a) Sam Pitroda b) Arjun Singh

c) Manmohan Singh d) Montek Singh

6. For which book has Kiran Desai been awarded the Booker Prize for the year 2006?

a) Sacred Games b) Inheritance of Loss

c) Shalimar d) Equal Music

7. Which of the following countries has been admitted as the newest (192nd) member of the United Nations?

a) Cameroon b) Montenegro c) Switzerland d) Malawi

8. Who among the following is the chairman of State Bank of India?

a) A.K. Puri b) A.K. Purwar c) O.P. Bhatt d) Y.V. Reddy

9. Who won the Oscars for the “Best Actor” in 2010?

a) Jeff Bridges b) George Clooney

c) Jeremy Renner d) Morgan Freeman

10. Which of these layers is farthest from the earth’s surface?

a) Exosphere b) Thermosphere c) Troposphere d) Mesosphere

11. Which of these atmospheric layers is nearest to the earth’s surface?

a) Stratosphere b) Mesosphere c) Troposphere d) Exosphere.

12. Which of the following vitamins is helpful for coagulation of blood?

a) C b) D c) E d) K

13. The reaction which converts sugar solution into alcohol is an example of

a) Saponification b) Hydrolysis c) Fermentation d) Hydrogenation

14. The working of a rocket is based on the principle of

a) Electricity b) Kepler’s law c) Newton’s d) Conservation of Momentum

15. Which of the following chemicals is useful in photography?

a) Silver bromide b) Sodium Chloride

c) Aluminum Hydroxide d) Potassium Nitrate

16. A transistor is most likely to be found in a

a) fuse b) fluorescent lamp c) hearing aid d) wrist watch

17. The buoyancy depends on

a) the shape of the body b) the mass of the body

c) the mass of the liquid displaced d) the depth to which the body is immersed

18. The unit of currency used in Germany is

a) Peso b) Dollar c) Euro d) Yen

19. The largest producer of coal in the world is

a) Russia b) Canada c) UK d) USA

20. All of the following are subsidiaries of the State Bank of India, except.

a) Central Bank of India b) State Bank of Patiala

c) State Bank of Hyderabad d) State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur

21. Public Sector consists of those enterprises in which the state owns.

a) 50% of the capital b) 66% of the capital c) 85% of the capital d) 100% of the capital

22. When did the Reserve Bank of India become a state owned institution?

a) 1943 b) 1947 c) 1949 d) 1952

23. The first sermon of Gautama Buddha was called the

a) Turning of the Wheel of Law

b) Salvation through Meditation

c) Asceticism was not the path to salvation

d) God was not essential to the Universe

24. Who was the Nawab of Bengal at the time of the Battle of Plassey?

a) Mir Jafar b) Mir Jumla c) Mir Qasim d) Siraj-ud-daula

25. Who amongst the following was the guardian and Regent of Akbar when he succeeded to the dominion of his father?

a) Bairam Khan b) Asad Khan c) Adam Khan d) Asaf Khan

26. The Mughal emperor who gave permission to the British to establish their trading centre at Surat was

a) Humayun b) Babur c) Jahangir d) Akbar

27. Who was the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament?

a) M. Malabari b) Dadabhai Naoroji

c) W.C. Bannerjee d) D.N. Wacha

28. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first try the Weapon of Satyagraha?

a) Champaran b) Bardoli c) Dandi d) South Africa

29. Who started the Doctrine of Lapse?

a) Lord Dollhouse b) Lord Curzon c) Lord Hastings d) Lord Wellesley

30. Mahatma Gandhi was first referred to as the Father of the Nation by

a) Vallabhai Patel b) C. Rajagopalachari

c) Subhash Chandra Bose d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

31. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of

a) A.O. Hume b) Budruddin Tyabji

c) Dadabhai Naoroji d) W.C. Bannerjee

32. Which of the following rivers remains in India throughout its journey from its source to the point of merger with another river?

a) Beas b) Chenab c) Jhelum d) Ravi

33. High Velds are the temperate grasslands of

a) South Australia b) Asia

c) South America d) Africa

34. The minor planets revolving between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars are called

a) Navas b) Asteroids c) Comets d) Meteors

35. All of the following caves are located in Maharashtra, except.

a) Ajanta Caves b) Elephanta Caves c) Amarnath Caves d) Ellora Caves

36. USP (Unique Selling Proposition) is a well known marketing term. Who coined it?

a) Philip Kotler b) Rosser Reeves

c) K.K. Birla d) Michael Porter

37. Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called ‘e-chaupals’?

a) ITC b) Dabur c) Procter & Gamble d) Hindustan Lever

38. Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by a public limited company?

a) Dabolim Airport, Goa b) Cochin Airport

c) Hyderabad Airport d) Bangalore Airport

39. Real juices are products of which company?

a) Nestle b) Dabur c) ITC d) None of these

40. Apple Computers Inc. was started by which of the following entrepreneurs?

a) Jack Welsch b) Bill Gates c) Warren Buffett d) Steve Jobs

41. The state which produces maximum quantity of gold in India is

a) Karnataka b) Punjab c) M.P. d) Gujrat

42. The earlier name of the WTO was

a) UNCTAD b ) GATT c) OECD d) UNIDO

43. Where is Davos – the venue of the annual meeting of World Economic Forum, located?

a) France b) Germany c) Switzerland d) Luxembourg

44. Who among the following has been appointed as the new Chief Election Commissioner?

a) B.B. Tandon b) S.Y. Qureshi

c) N. Gopalaswami d) G.V.G. Krishnamurthy.

45. Where will be the world cup football of 2014 be held?

a) Brazil b) England c) S. Africa d) Australia

46. Which among the following is India’s first indigenously developed missile?

a) Akash b) Prithvi c) Agni d) Trishul

47. Where are the headquarters of the UNICEF located ?

a) New York b) Washington D.C. c) Geneva d) Parilp

48. Who won the FIFA Golden shoe/boot Award for the World Cup Football in 2010?

a) Diego Forlan b) Thomas Mueller

c) David Villa d) Miroslav Klose

49. Which mobile operator has got largest number of subscribers in India?

a) BSNL b) HUTCH c) Bharti d) Idea

50. Can you identify the name of the first FM radio station launched by the ADLABS films recently?

a) 95 FM b) 98.3 FM c) 91.1 FM d) Big 92 FM

51. Which of the following represents the name of the latest can model launched by the Hyundai Motors in India recently?

a) Laura b) Fiesta c) Verna d) Aveo

52. Orhan Pamuk, winner of 2006 Nobel Prize for literature, belongs to which country?

a) U.S. b) Turkey c) Spain d) Iran

53. How many countries participated in XIX 2010 Delhi Commonwealth games?

a) 56 b) 61 c) 71 d) 80

54. How many times has Michael Schumacher won the World Championship?

a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Eight

55. Who is the defence minister of India?

a) A.K. Antony b) P. Chidambaram c) Arjun Singh d) Natwar Singh

56. Pranab Mukherjee is the Union —————— Minister

a) External Affairs b) Defence

c) Parliamentary Affairs d) Finance

57. Which product has been selected by Time Magazine as ‘Invention of the year’ for 2006?

a) IPOD b) You Tube c) Xbox d) Play Station –3

58. Who is India’s highest paid executive?

a) Mukesh Ambani b) Azim Premji c) Sunil Mittal d) Anil Ambani

59. Who is the new US Defence secretary?

a) Donald Rumsfeld b) Dick Cheney

c) John Negropante d) Robert Gates

60. Which of the following was the first Indian State to have gone under the President’s rule?

a) Uttar Pradesh b) Punjab c) Andhra Pradesh d) Manipur

61. Which of the following planets is named after the Roman God of agriculture?

a) Uranus b) Neptune c) Pluto d) Saturn

62. Galvanisation process basically involves coating with….

a) Iron b) Copper c) Zinc d) Aluminium

63. Which of the following cities is known as “Land of Thousand Lakes”?

a) Warsaw b) Vienna c) Helsinki d) Rome

64. Where are the headquarters of the International Red cross located?

a) Rome b) Geneva c) Bern d) Paris

65. Who is known as the father of Cell Phone?

a) Charles Babbage b) James Gosling

c) Martin Copper d) Jerry Yang

66. Name the first Indian to have won an Oscar.

a) Satyajit Roy b) Guru Dutt c) Mira Nair d) Bhanu Athaiya

67. Who is also known as “Deshbandhu”?

a) S. Radhakrishnan b) Chittaranjan Das c) G.R. Gokhale d) Madan Mohan Malviya

68. Panchayati Raj comes under which of the following lists?

a) Union List b) Concurrent List

c) State List d) Residual List

69. World Women’s day is celebrated on

a) 10th Dec. b) 8th March c) 15th Nov. d) 11th Sept.

70. This city has now got a replica of Tirupati Temple perhaps the largest Hindu Temple in the world outside India.

a) New York b) Los Angles c) London d) Melbourne

71. This Hollywood Star is directing her first film – “The Kapurthala Princess” for which she is scouting for locations in India.

a) Penelope Cruz b) Angelina Jolie

c) Jennifer Aniston d) Kate Winslet

72. Jagat Singh has been expelled from the Congress. He is an MLA in . .. .

a) Haryana b) Rajasthan c) Uttar Pradesh d) Bihar

73. This UK University, of which Prince Phillip is the Chancellor, gave the honorary doctorate to Dr. Manmohan Singh. Name the University.

a) Oxford University b) Bradford University

c) Birmingham University d) Cambridge University

74. Name the actress who is the new ambassador of the World Gold Council.

a) Sridevi b) Revathy c) Shobhana d) Jyothika

75. Which is the best small state in law and order, according to India Today?

a) Pondhicherry b) Goa c) Delhi d) Manipur

76. Who is the Chairman of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?

a) O.P. Bhatti b) J.S. Sarma c) K.V. Kamath d) V. Tulsidas

77. Which of the following is NOT a terrestrial planet?

a) Mercury b) Venus c) Earth d) Jupiter

78. Which of the following countries is the smallest republic in the world?

a) Nauru b) Vatican City c) Tuvalu d) East Timor

79. Who is the author of the famous work titled “Siddhartha”?

a) George Bernard Shaw b) Thomas Hardy

c) James Joyce d) Herman Heese

80. Which of the following is the least densely populated Union Teritory?

a) Delhi b) Andaman & Nicobar

c) Lakshadweep d) Daman & Din

81. Which of the following is not a Rabi Crop?

a) Mustad b) Wheat c) Bajra d) Grams

82. The first traders to reach India were the

a) Dutch b) French c) English d) Portuguese

83. Who was the first governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

a) James Taylor b) Osborne Smith

c) CD Deshmukh d) BR Raju

84. Find the odd one out.

a) Plebiscite b) Quo Warranto

c) Prohibition d) Certiorari

85. Maoril are the indigenous people of

a) Australia b) New Zealand

c) Namibia d) Austria

86. When did the World Trade Organization come into existence?

a) 1977 b) 1984 c) 1995 d) 2000

87. Pascal is the Unit of

a) Pressure b) Heat c) Force d) Power

88. Which among the following is the birth place of Swami Mahavir?

a) Lumbini b) Kushinagar c) Pavapuri d) Kundangrama

89. Which of the famous personalities is also known as the “Man of Destiny”?

a) Bismarck b) Napoleon c) Hitler d) Mujibur Rehman

90. What is the strength of World Trade organization?

a) 150 b) 200 c) 192 d) 202

91. Khadar & Bangar are two different types of

a) Laterite Soil b) Alluvial Soil c) Black Soil d) Arid Soil

92. According to Chinese Officials, which Indian State is a part of China.

a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Sikkim

c) Manipur d) Assam

93. Which international leader recently accused the United States of sacrificing democratic ideals while waging war against terrorism?

a) Pope Benedict XVI b) Kofi Annan

c) Tony Blair d) Jacques Chirac

94. By what name is the popular reality series “BIG BOSS” internationally known as?

a) I SPY b) Voyeur TV c) Big Brother d) Almighty

95. In which country was the original version of Big Boss first aired?

a) The Netherlands b) United Kingdom

c) Belgium d) Brazil

96. Who was the rival company against Tata in takeover of CORUS?

a) Nippon b) Mittal Steel c) CSN d) Posco

97. Choose among the following options, “the most expensive city in world”.

a) Paris b) London

c) New York d) Tokyo

98. Which city is set to have the world’s longest metro railway, 561 km long, by 2020?

a) Beijing b) Bengaluru c) Delhi d) Tokyo

99. Which of these mobile companies is largest manufactures of Cell Phones?

a) Motorola b) Sony Ericsson c) Nokia d) Samsumg

100. Which Car among the following is bestseller in the world?

a) BMW b) Mercedes E-class

c) Audi 600 d) Toyota Corolla

101. The capital of Uttaranchal is

a) Mussoorie b) Dehra Dun c) Nainital d) Tehri

102. Geet-Gobind is the famous creation of

a) Banbhatt b) Kalidas c) Jayadev d) Bharat Muni

103. Bloemfontein is the judicial capital of

a) S. Africa b) Denmark c) Poland d) Finland

104. The controversial Tehri Dam was built over

a) Ganga b) Godavari c) Bhagirathi d) Narmada

105. Who was the first premier of Pakistan?

a) Liaquat Ali Khan b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

c) Mohammad Ayub Khan d) Ali Mohammad Khusro

106. Name the Governor – General and the first Viceroy of India during whose tenure the 1857 revolt took place.

a) Lord Rippon b) Lord Curzon c) Lord Canning d) Lord Ardinge

107. The famous Chinese traveller Fa-Hien came to India during the reign of

a) Harsha Vardhan b) Chandra Gupta II

c) Kanishka d) Samudragupta

108. The absorption of ink by a blotting paper is based on

a) Newton’s law of motion b) Pascal’s law

c) Capillary Action d) Bernulli’s Theorem

109. Mother Teresa won the Nobel Prize of Peace in

a) 1977 b) 1979 c) 1982 d) 1984

110. This country is known as the “Sugar Bowl of the World”. Identify It.

a) Brazil b) Mexico c) India d) Cuba

111. The first woman chief minister of an Indian State is

a) Sarojini Naidu b) Indira Gandhi

c) Sucheta Kriplani d) Rajkumar Amrita Kaur

112. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the planning commission of India?

a) President of India b) Finance Minister

c) Prime Minister d) Vice-President

113. What is the % area of earth covered by Pacific Ocean?

a) 25% b) 35% c) 40% d) 45%

114. Sakyamuni is another name of

a) Mahavir b) Buddha c) Lord Shiva d) Hanuman

115. “The Maratha” and “The Kesari” were the two main newspapers started by

a) Lala Lajpat Rai b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak d) Madan Mohan Malviya

116. Mahatma Gandhi founded ……………… newspaper in 1903 in South Africa

a) Indian Opinion b) Harijan c) Indian Speaker d) India news

117. H.J. Kania was the first

a) Chief justice of Supreme Court of India

b) Attorney – General of India

c) Solicitor-General of India

d) None of these

118. The capital of Tanzania is

a) Abuja b) Dar-e-Salaam c) Harare d) Kiev

119. Who among the following is known as “The Saint of Gutters”?

a) Baba Amte b) Mother Teresa c) Anna Hazare d) None of these

120. Gulliver’s Travels is a famous work of

a) James Joyce b) Jonathan Swift c) E. Hemingway d) Shakespeare

121. The first battle of Panipat took place in

a) 1498 b) 1516 c) 1526 d) 1532

122. Who is known as “Builder of Modern Turkey”?

a) Marshal Tito b) Anwar Sadat

c) Mustafa Kamal d) Benito Mussolini

123. The largest automobile manufacturer of the world is

a) Ford Motors b) General Motors

c) Toyota Motors d) Honda Motors

124. The Sardar Sarovar Project is based on the river

a) Godavari b) Tapti c) Narmada d) Krishna

125. Who has won the maximum number of World Billiard & Championships.

a) M. Ferrira b) Geeth Sethi c) Wilson Jones d) None of these

126. The height of Mount Everest is

a) 8838 metrep b) 8848 m c) 8850 m d) 8842 m

127. ‘AFP’ is the news agency of

a) UK b) USA c) Germany d) None of these

128. The first secretary-general of the UN was

a) U. Thant b) Trygve Lie

c) Baotros Boutros Ghali d) Kofi Annan

129. In which year, did Alexander invade India?

a) 323 BC b) 324 BC c) 326 BC d) 328 BC

130.The first chief election commissioner of India was

a) S.L. Shakadhar b) Sukumar Sen c) H.J. Kania d) P.C. Sen

131. The world record for the fastest double century in tests is held by

a) S. Jayasuriya b) Nathan Astle c) A. Gilchrist d) V. Sehwag

132. Who is known as the “Father of Economics”?

a) J.M. Keynes b) Adam Smith c) A. Maslow d) J.K. Galbraith

133. Mount Etna is a famous volcano located in

a) Argentina b) Italy c) Mexico d) Phillipines

134. Who is known as “The Father of Geometry”?

a) Pythagoras b) Euclid c) Newton d) Laplace

135. Panama Canal links which of the following water resources?

a) Pacific Ocean & Atlantic Ocean b) Red Sea & Caspian Sea

c) Red Sea & Mediterranean Sea d) None of these

136. Who is the author “Meghdoot”?

a) Banbhatt b) Kalidas c) Tulsidas d) Surdas

137. Which part of the body gets affected in Pleurisy ?

a) Joints b) Lungs c) Liver d) Throat

138. In a normal healthy man, the quantity of blood is about

a) 3 litres b) 4 litres c) 5 litres d) 6 litres

139. What % of the world area is occupied by India?

a) 1.3% b) 2.4% c) 4.5% d) 5.7%

140. Who is considered “Father of History”?

a) Herodotus b) Aristotle c) Socrates d) Plato

141. The venue of the first Asian Games that took place in 1951 was

a) Tokyo b) Manila c) Bangkok d) New Delhi

142. Which of the following rays is not harmful?

a) Ultra-violet rays b) X-rays c) Infra-red d) Short radio waves

143. International Rice Research Institute is based at

a) Bangkok b) Manila c) Kuala Lumpur d) Tokyo

144. Identify the person who has written National Anthem for two nations?

a) Iqbal b) Rabindra Nath Tagore

c) Bankim Chatterjee d) Sharat Chandra Chatterjee

145. During whose reign did Huen Tsang Visit India?

a) Kanishka b) Chandragupta c) Ashok d) Harsha

146. Which of the following is not on official lanugage of the United Nations?

a) Chinese b) French c) German d) Arabic

147. The LIC came into being in which of the following years?

a) 1952 b) 1954 c) 1956 d) 1958

148. Brass is an alloy which consists of

a) Zinc & Sulphur b) Sulphur & Copper

c) Copper & Zinc d) Zinc & Magnesium

149. India’s first steel plant was set-up at

a) Rourkela b) Bhilai c) Durgapur d) Jamshedpur

150. The nature of Indian Economy can best be described as

a) Socialist b) Mixed c) Capitalist d) None of these

151. ‘Cue’ is a term used in which of the following sports?

a) Billiards b) Hockey c) Football d) Chess

152. The year in which the first train from Thane to Mumbai started in India was

a) 1843 b) 1853 c) 1863 d) 1851

153. ‘Tripitakas’ are the sacred text of

a) Jainism b) Buddhism c) Hinduism d) Sikhism

154. Brahmos is a/an

a) Supersonic Cruise Missile b) Tank

c) Submarine d) Fighter Plane

155. English Education in India was introduced by

a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Curzon

c) Lord Macaulay d) Lord Rippon

156. ‘Sugar Bowl of India’ is

a) Madhya Pradesh b) Uttar Pradesh

c) Kerela d) Karnataka

157. “My Passage from India” is a book authored by

a) E.M. Foster b) Ismail Merchant

c) Nirad Choudhary d) Mulk Raj Anand

158. Which of the following is the world’s largest drug manufacturing company?

a) Novartis b) Aventis c) Pfizer d) Glaxo SmithKline Beecham

159. Who is given the credit for invention of e-mail?

a) Larry Page b) Raj Tomlinson c) T. Lee Burns d) Martin Cooper

160. Metals which chemically behave as metals and non-metals are called

a) Alloys b) Metalloids c) Halogens d) Chalkogens

161. The largest river in terms of volume of water is

a) Nile b) Amazon c) Yanglze-Kiang d) Mississippi Missourie

162. The World Environment Day is celebrated throughout the world on

a) May 8 b) June 5 c) July 11 d) August 27

163. Decible is the unit of

a) frequency b) wavelength c) sound d) luminous intensity

164. ‘Manas Tiger Sanctuary’ is in

a) Uttar Pradesh b) Rajasthan c) Assam d) Madhya Pradesh

165. Which of the following trains is India’s first certified ISO-9001 train?

a) Bhopal Express b) Magadh Express

c) Mumbai-Delhi Shatabdi Exp. d) A P Express

166. ASEAN is headquartered at

a) Male b) Kathmandu c) Jakarta d) Kuala Lumpur

167. Which of the following is not the member of European Union?

a) Greece b) Finland c) Norway d) UK

168. The literacy rate of India is

a) 57.86% b) 62.34% c) 63.98% d) 65.38%

169. Mein Kemf is authored by

a) Napoleon b) Hitler c) Mussolini d) Kari Marx

170. Which river is also called “The Ganges of the South”?

a) Godavari b) Krishna c) Kauvery d) None of these

171. The weight of the man will be ____ on the surface of moon of his actual weight.

a) 1/3rd b) 1/4th c) 1/5th d) 1/6th

172. Thomas Aiva Edison did not invent

a) Gramophone b) Electric Lamp c) Microphone d) Cinematograph

173. The line that demarcates the boundary between India and Pakistan is

a) The MacMohan Line b) Durand Line

c) Radcliffe Line d) None of these

174. Which country is known as the cockpit of Europe?

a) Poland b) Belgium c) Turkey d) Sweden

175. Which Indian State is inhabited by ‘Jaintiya tribes’?

a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Mizoram

c) Manipur d) Meghalaya

Answer Key (General Knowledge & Current Affairs)

1) d 2) c 3) a 4) d 5) a

6) b 7) b c 9) ba 10) a

11) c 12) d 13) c 14) d 15) a

16) c 17) c 18) c 19) d 20) a

21) d 22) c 23) a 24) d 25) a

26) c 27) b 28) d 29) a 30) c

31) d 32) a 33) d 34) b 35) c

36) b 37) a 38) d 39) b 40) d

41) a 42) b 43) c 44) c 45) a

46) b 47) a 48) b 49) c 50) d

51) c 52) b 53) c 54) c 55) a

56) d 57) b 58) a 59) d 60) b

61) d 62) c 63) c 64) b 65) c

66) d 67) b 68) c 69) b 70) c

71) a 72) b 73) d 74) c 75) a

76) b 77) d 78) a 79) d 80) b

81) c 82) d 83) b 84) a 85) b

86) c 87) a 88) d 89) b 90) a

91) b 92) a 93) b 94) c 95) a

96) c 97) d 98) a 99) c 100) d

101) b 102) c 103) a 104) c 105) a

106) c 107) b 108) c 109) b 110) d

111) c 112) c 113) b 114) b 115) c

116) a 117) a 118) b 119) b 120) b

121) c 122) c 123) b 124) c 125) b

126) b 127) d 128) b 129) c 130) b

131) b 132) b 133) b 134) b 135) a

136) b 137) b 138) c 139) b 140) a

141) d 142) d 143) b 144) b 145) d

146) c 147) c 148) c 149) d 150) b

151) a 152) b 153) b 154) a 155) c

156) b 157) b 158) c 159) b 160) b

161) b 162) b 163) c 164) c 165) a

166) c 167) b 168) c 169) b 160) b

161) b 162) b 163) c 164) c 165) a

166) c 167) c 168) d 169) b 170) c

171) d 172) c 173) c 174) b 175) d

Business Awareness

1. “Fresh” and “Select” are the names of the brands that have been launched as entry of the company into the retail sector. Identify the company

a) Tata Group b) Bharati Enterprises

c) Reliance Industries Ltd. d) AV Birla Group

2. Which of the following personalities is the present brand ambassdor of Siyaram suiting shirtings?

a) Virender Sehwag b) M S Dhoni

c) Vijender Singh d) Jeev Milkha Singh

3. With which of the following giants would you associate ‘One India’ tariff plan?

a) MTNL b) VSNL c) BSNL d) Reliance Infocomm

4. The Car-Maker Renault belongs to….

a) England b) Germany c) France d) USA

5. Which of the following companies has the tagline “Be more ambitious”?

a) Raymonds b) NIIT

c) Bombay Dyeing d) Zodiac

6. What is the rank of India in tea production throughout the world?

a) fourth b) second c) first d) tenth

7. Which of the following companies would you associate with the gizmo X-Box 360?

a) Sony b) Microsoft c) Apple d) Nintendo

8. The present chairperson of Institute of Rural Management, Anand is

a) V. Kurien b) Yoginder Alagh

c) Amrita Patel d) Parthi Bhatol

9. Which of the following personalities is the latest brand ambassdor of the Deutsche Bank?

a) Sania Mirza b) Baichung Bhutia

c) Vishwanathan Anand d) Mahesh Bhupathi

10. The Hospitality group Hilton hails from

a) UK b) USA c) France d) Australia

11. Which of the following companies has recently tied up with Google to offer search services for the mobile customer?

a) BSNL b) Airtel c) Hutch d) Idea

12. Starbucks is a World leader in the

a) Tea business b) Food Business

c) Coffee Business d) Print Business

13. Which of the following personalities is the present European Union’s Trade Commissioner?

a) Karel De Gucht b) Robert Zoellick

c) Peter Mandelson d) Jose Mannual Barrosso

14. “Forever New Frontiers” is the punchline of

a) Cisco System b) Airbus c) Boeing d) AT & T

15. Which of the following banks was in the news recently as it was merging the Sangli Bank with itself?

a) State Bank of India b) HDFC Bank

c) ICICI Bank d) UTI Bank

16. Can you identify the name of this Indian Company that became the first ever Indian company to enter the elite NASDAQ-100 Club?

a) ICS b) Infosys Technologies

c) Wipro Technologies d) HCL Technologies

17. The first ever Indian company to be listed on NASDAQ was . ..

a) WIPRO b) HCL c) INFOSYS D) SATYAM

18. The number of Indian companies that are on the list of the Forbes most reputed companies are..

a) 4 b) 8 c) 6 d) 10

19. “Simply Priceless” is the punchline of

a) Air India Express b) Indigo Airlines

c) Kingfisher Airlines d) Paramount Airways

20. Who among the following is the MD & CEO of ICICI Bank?

a) Chanda Kochar b) Jaspal Singh c) K.V. Kamath d) Nakul Arula

21. Vogue is the name of

a) cosmetics brand b) jewellery brand

c) clothing giant d) magazine

22. In which state is the Volkswagen AG planning to set up its manufacturing facility in India ?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Tamil Nadu

c) Maharashtra d) Karnataka

23. “Passat” is the name of the car model that belongs to the stable of. ..

a) General Motors b) Volkswagen

c) Honda Motors d) Hyundai Motors

24. Four interwoven rings represent the logo of

a) Olympics b) Audi c) Mercedes Benz d) Octavia

25. “Truly Japanese Truly Advanced” is the punchline of

a) Sony b) Sharp c) Akai d) Aiwa

26. Which group has recently bought less than 10% stake in Spice Jet for rupees 100 Cr ?

a) Tatas b) A.V. Birla Group c) Wadias d) Ruias

27. “Engineering your tomorrows” is the punchline of

a) Volvo b) Mahindra & Mahindra

c) Tata Motors d) Ashok Leyland

28. “Consider the possibilities” is the tagline that you would associate with . . ..

a) CISCO System b) Dell Computers

c) Nortel d) UNIX

29. Which of the following personalities is the present president of NASSCOM?

a) Kiran Karnik b) Som Mittal

c) K.V. Kamath d) V. Damodaran

30. “Lotto” is the name of Sports company that belongs to

a) Germany b) Italy c) U.K. d) France

31. What is the rank of India in terms of absolute GDP throughout the World?

a) 6th b) 8th c) 12th d) 10th

32. “Diamond Trading Company”, the largest diamond trading company hails from…

a) Australia b) S. Africa c) India d) New Zealand

33. “Imagination at work” is the punchline of

a) Dell Computer b) Microsoft c) GE d) IBM

34. “Business @ speed of thought” is the name of a bestseller by

a) Larry Ellison b) Bill Gates c) Jack Welsch d) Steve Jobs

35. “Putting news first” is the punchline of

a) CNN b) CNBC c) Fox News d) BBC

36. Which of the following personalities would you associate with the Cable News Network Channel?

a) Rupert Murdoch b) Ted Turner

c) Warren Buffett d) Tom Glocer

37. Which Indian state promotes itself by using the tagline “The heart of incredible India”?

a) Orissa b) Madhya Pradesh c) Kerela d) Rajasthan

38. Find the odd one out

a) Karizma b) Glamour c) Avenger d) Passion

39. Who among the following personalities is known as the “Oracle of Omaha”?

a) Bill Gates b) Larry Ellison

c) Warren Buffett d) Steve Jobs

40. Which of the following personalities is the CEO of the World’s largest retail chain, Wal-Mart?

a) Sam Watton b) Robert Walton

c) H Lee Scott Junior d) John Davison

41. “Believe in Yourself” is the ad campaign that you would associate with…

a) Lotto b) Adidas c) Nike d) Reebok

42. NASDAQ, the first electronic stock exchange of the world, came into existence in …

a) 1967 b) 1969 c) 1971 d) 1973

43. Hutchinson is the name of the telecom giant that belongs to

a) Hong Kong b) Taiwan c) Thailand d) S. Korea

44. Which airlines displays the tag line, “There is no better way to fly”?

a) Singapore Airlines b) Lufthansa

c) Emirates d) Air India

45. “Fair & Lovely” was launched by

a) P & G b) Lakme

c) Hindustan Lever d) Godrej

46. The adline “Good People to Bank With” is associated with

a) Punjab National Bank b) State Bank of India

c) Union Bank of India d) Citi Bank

47. The slogan “Live Your Dreams” is associated with which company?

a) Liberty b) Bata c) Woodland d) Reebok

48. Where are the headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?

a) New Delhi b) Manila c) Singapore d) Mumbai

49. “Your World Delivered” is the punchline of

a) Accenture b) AT & T c) DHL d) Chevron Texaco

50. The number of nationalised bank & in India are ….

a) 15 b) 17 c) 19 d) 21

51. Ginger is the brand name of hotels that will be run by

a) AV Birla Group b) Tatas c) Ambanis d) Wadias

52. Find the odd one out.

a) Flair b) Fusion c) Fiesta d) Verna

53. Which of the following is not one of the Navratna companies?

a) IOC b) BHEL c) GAIL d) VSNL

54. “Sense and Simplicity” is the punchline of

a) GE b) Siemens AC c) Philips d) Motorola

55. “Uncommon Sense” is the punchline that you would associate with …

a) P & G b) Marico Industreis c) Boeing d) Air Bus

56. Which of the following companies is the largest computer manufacturing company of the world?

a) Lenovo computers b) Acer

c) Compaq d) Dell Computers.

57. “Happiness on Earth” is the tagline that you would associate with promotion of tourism in

a) Malaysia b) Singapore

c) Thailand d) Indonesia

58. “Growth is life” is the punchline of

a) AV Birla Group b) Tata Motors

c) Tisco d) Reliance Industries Ltd.

59. Of which electronic giant is the Howard Stringer Chairman and CEO?

a) Philips b) Sony c) Samsumg d) Dell Computer

60. Neotel is the new name of the telecommunication venture of ……………in South Africa.

a) Birlas b) Ruias c) Tatas d) Ambanis

61. Which Indian State has the highest share in the foreign direct investment in India?

a) Tamil Nadu b) Karnataka c) Maharashtra d) Gujarat

62. The Tata Group is coming up with the retail chain of stores under the brand name of

a) Fresh b) Infinity c) Select d) Croma

63. Which of the following companies was in the news recently as it launched India’s first IPTV?

a) MTNL b) BSNL c) VSNL d) Airtel

64. Which of the following brands is NOT owned by Reckitt & Benckiser?

a) Iodex b) Strepsils c) Sweetex d) Clearsil

65. Who is the new brand ambassdor of Provogue?

a) Fardeen Khan b) Hrithik ROshan c) John Abraham d) Saif Ali Khan

66. What was the worth of the deal in which Videocon acquired Daewoo Electronics recently?

a) $ 700 mn b) $ 750 mn c) $ 500 mn d) $ 300 mn

67. “Elegance is an Attitude” is the punchline of

a) Rado b) Longines c) Tag Huer d) Rolex

68. This personality is the newly appointed CEO of Acelor Mittal Name him.

a) Aditya Mittal b) Joseph Kinseh c) L.N. Mittal d) Jack Welsch

69. “Kal Par Control” is the punchline of

a) Bajaj Allianz b) Aviva Life

c) HDFC Standard Life d) General Motors

70. X-Trail is the name of an SUV that belongs to

a) Honda b) Nissan c) Ford d) General Motors

71. Kishore Biyani is the promoter of

a) Reliance b) Infinity Retail

c) Vishal Megamart d) Future Group

72. “All Desire” is the punchline of

a) Ford Endeavour b) Toyota Innova

c) Lancer Cedia d) Skoda Laura

73. Which Indian Cricketer has been roped in by the ITC Foods to create a line of energy foods?

a) Rahul Dravid b) MS Dhoni

c) Yuvraj Singh d) Sachin Tendulkar

74. Which of the following personalities is the CEO of Airbus?

a) Louis Gallois b) Andeas Sperl c) John Leahy d) Tom Enders

75. Which is the 2nd largest steel company in the World?

a) Arcelor-Mittal b) BaoSteel c) NIPPON d) Tata-Corus

Answer Key (BUSINESS AWARENESS)

1) c 2) c 3) a 4) c 5) b

6) b 7) b b 9) a

10) b 11) b 12) c 13) a 14) c

15) c 16) b 17) c 18) a 19) b

20) a 21) d 22) c 23) b

24) b 25) c 26) a 27) b 28) b

29) a 30) b 31) d 32) b 33) c

34) b 35) d 36) b 37) b 38) c

39) c 40) c 41) a 42) c 43) a

44) b 45) c 46) c 47) a 48) b

49) a 50) c 51) b 52) d 53) d

54) c 55) b 56) d 57) c 58) d

59) b 60) c 61) c 62) d 63) a

64) a 67) a 68) d 69) c 60) d

61) b 62) c 63) c 64) d 65) a

66) a 67) a 68) d 69) a 70) b

71) d 72) b

73) a 74) d 75) b

GK FOR SNAP & IIFT

nishant — Sat, 20 Nov 2010 15:12:56 +0000

FIFA World Cup Winner 2010: Spain and finalist: The Netherlands.

Golden ball Winner: Diego Forlan (5 goals) (Uruguay) (Best Player of the tournament)

Golden Boot Winner: Thomas Muller (5 goals, Germany).

Que: Which country has won maximum times Football World Cup?

Ans: Brazil (5 times.) And also Brazil are the only team to have played in all 19 World Cup tournaments.

Que: Where will be the 2014 FIFA World Cup Football be organized?

Ans: Brazil

Modern Olympics: Pierre de Coubertin founded the International Olympic Committee in 1894 and from since on Modern Olympics games started to be staged. In 1896, first modern Olympics games were held in Athens (Greece). First Winter Olympics was stages in 1924 in Chamonix (France). International Olympic Committee (IOC) is responsible for selecting the host, overseeing the planning of Olympic games and other activities. IOC headquarters are in Laussane. The 1936 Summer Olympics In Berlin was the first games to be broadcast on television, though only to local audiences. The 1956 Winter Olympics were the first internationally televised Olympics games.

The Olympic Symbol consists of five intertwined rings and represents the unity of five inhabited continents (America, Asia, Africa, Europe and Australasia). The coloured version of the rings – Blue, Yellow, Black, Green and Red – over a white field forms the Olympic flag. The flag was adopted in 1914 but flown for the first time only at 1920 Summer Olympics in Antwerp, Belgium.

The Olympic Motto is “Citius, Altius, Fortius” a latin expression meaning “Faster, Higher, Stronger. The Olympic mascot, an animal or a human figure representing the Cultural heritage of host country was introduced in 1968. In the opening ceremony parade, Greece is the first country to enter the ring in order to honour the origins of Olympics. Nations then enter the stadium alphabetically according to host country’s chosen language, with the host country’s athletes entering last.

The Summer Olympics consists of 26 sports, 30 disciplines and nearly 300 events, while Winter Olympics features 15 sports. 2012 Summer Olympics are going to be held in London, while 2016 Summer Olympics will be held in Rio De Janerio (Brazil). The next Winter Olympics will be hosted in Sochi, Russia in 2014, which will be the first time this nation has hosted.

USA has hosted 4 Summer Olympics and 4 Winter Olympics, more than any other nation. Among host cities, Los Angeles, Paris, Athens and London have played host to Olympics games twice and with 2012 Olympics being held at London, London will become the first city to host Olympic Games thrice.

The first Olympic athlete to test positive for performance-enhancing drugs was Hans-Gunnar Lijenwall, a Swedish athlete at 1968 Summer Olympics at Mexico City.

Olympic games are held every two years, with Summer and Winter games alternating one after the another. So, actually Summer Olympics are held after every 4 years and same holds for Winter Olympics.

Last Summer Olympics was held in 2008 in Beijing in which participants from 204 countries took part, while the most recent Winter Olympics was held in 2010 in Vancouver (Canada).

Que: Which Olympic athlete has won the most gold medals in a single Olympics?

Ans: Michael Phelps (8 gold medals) of USA in 2008 Beijing Olympics. Michael Phelps broke the record of winning maximum gold medals at Beijing surpassing 7 gold medals won by USA swimmer Mark Spitz in 1972 Munich Olympics.

Que: Which Olympic athlete has won maximum medals at Olympic game?

Ans: Alexander Dityatin of Russia first won 8 medals at 1980 Summer Olympics in Moscow. And then Michael Phelps of US won 8 gold medals in Athens Olympics in 2004 ( 6 gold & 2 bronze) and 8 gold medals at Beijing Olympics in 2008, thus equalling the record of winning maximum number of medals in Olympic.

Que: Which Olympic athlete has won maximum number of medals in all the Olympics games played?

Ans: Soviet Gymnast Larissa Latynina has won 18 medals (9 gold) over three Olympics and second in the list is Michael Phelps with 16 medals in two Olympics.

India at Olympics:

India first participated in Olympics in 1900, with a lone athlete (Norman Pritchard) winning two silver medals in athletics (200m race and 200m hurdles).[International Olympic Committee regards the medals won by Norman Pritchard as credited to India, but International committee credits it to Great Britian]. India first sent a team to Olympics in 1920 Summer Olympics and has participated in every summer games since then. India has also competed at Winter Olympics since 1964.

Indian Athletes have won a total of 20 medals, mostly in field hockey. Indian hockey team has won a total of 11 medals including six gold medals from 1928-1956.

Gold Medals: Hockey (1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, 1980) and Abhinav Bindra in 2008 Beijing Shooting.

Silver Medals: Hockey (1960), Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore in (Shooting 2004 Athens) and Norman Pritchard (in Athletes 1900 Paris).

Bronze Medals: K.D.Jadhav (Wrestling in 1952 Helsinki Olympics), Hockey in (1968 & 1972), Leander Paes in (1996 tennis singles), Karnam Maaleshwari in (Weightlifting 2000 Sydney), Sushil Kumar (wrestling in 2008 Beijing) and Vijender Kumar in (Boxing in 2008 Beijing).

Note: If we do not count Norman Pritchard as Indian as it is debated, then the first Indian to win a medal at Olympics in individual event will be K.D.Jadhav (Wresting in 1952 helsinki).

Tennis Grand slam Winners of 2010:

a) Australian Open 2010:

Male Winner: Roger Federer and finalist : Andy Murray

Female Winner: Serena Williams and finalist : Justine Henin

b) French Open 2010

Male : Winner : Rafael Nadal and finalist Robin Soderling.

Female: Winner: Francesca Schiavone and finalist Samantha Stosur.

c) Wimbeldon 2010:

Male: Winner : Winner : Rafael Nadel and finalist Tomas Berdych.

Female : Winner: Serena Williams and finalist Vera Zvonareva.

d) US Open 2010:

Male: Winner: Rafael Nadal and finalist : Novak Djokovic

Female Winner: Kim Clijsters and finalist : Vera Zvonareva.

Que: Which female tennis player has won maximum number of Grand slams tournaments?

Ans: Margaret Smith Court ( from Australia with 24 grand slams)

Que: Which male tennis player has won maximum number of grand slams tournaments?

Ans: Roger Federer (from Switzerland, 16 grand slam titles).

Multiple choice Questions: SET 1

1. The table below matches the company with its auto brand. Choose the correct match.

Company	Brand
a. Tata	(i) Santa Fe
b. Hyundai	(ii) Aria
c. Skoda	(iii) Yeti
d. Chevrolet	(iv) Volt

A. a – (ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

B. a – (ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

C. a – (i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)

D. a – (ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

2. “Dynamite” is a mobile handset from

a. Spice b. Micromax c. LG d. Samsung

3. The slogans in the table below have been matched with the company they relate to. Choose the correct match.

Slogan	Company
a. Jet Airways	(i) You are our world
b. Air Sahara	(ii) The joy of flying
c. Sri Lankan Airways	(iii) Emotionally Yours
d. Cathay Pacific	(iv) The heart of Asia

A. a – (ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

B. a – (ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

C. a – (i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)

D. a – (ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

4. Indian Cricket team is opposed to “UDRS”. What does UDRS stand for?

a. Umpire decision rating system

b. Umpire decision review system

c. Umpire decision resolution system

d. Umpire decision review service

5. Identify the indirect tax from the given options.

a) Wealth tax b) Sales tax c.) Corporation tax d.) Gift tax

6. The DTH service launched recently by which company has the tagline “ Direct hai Correct hai”?

a. Samsung b. Onida c. Videocon d. Sun TV

7. Who among the following is the chairman of Wipro?

a. Azim Premji b. Girish Paranjpe c. Suresh Vaswani d. T.Balakrishnan

8. Which famous European company was founded by cousins of Communist ideologue Karl Marx?

a. Siemens b. Philips c. Bayer d. Volkswagen

9. The table below matches the painting with its painter. Choose the correct match.

Painter	Painting
a. Leonardo da Vinci	(i) Sistine chapel
b. Michael Angelo	(ii)The Last Supper
c. M.F. Hussain	(iii) Vase with fifteen sunflowers
d. Vincent Van Gogh	(iv) Sufi Paintings

A. a – (ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)

B. a – (i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)

C. a – (ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

D. a – (iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)

10. Which of the following players won 2010 US open tennis Grand slam?

a. Serena Williams b. Caroline Wozinacki c. Kim Clijsters d. Venus Williams

11. Which golfer has won maximum number of GOLF MASTERS?

a. Tiger Woods b. Arnold Palmer c. Greg Norman d. Jack Nicklaus

12. The table below matches the tournament with its sport. Choose the correct match.

Sport	Tournament
a. Golf	(i) Uber Cup
b. Badminton	(ii) Ryder Cup
c. Football	(iii) Frank Worell trophy
d. Cricket	(iv) UEFA Cup

A. a – (ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

B. a – (i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)

C. a – (iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)

D. a – (iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)

13. Name the managing director of Bajaj Auto Limited.

a. Rahul Bajaj b. Rajiv Bajaj c. Sanjiv Bajaj d. Madhur Bajaj

14. Which footballer won the “Golden boot” award in 2010 Football World cup?

a. David Villa b. Lionel Messey c. Diego Forlan d. Thomas Mueller

15. Tesco is a famous retailing giant from

a. Germany b. France c. Italy d. United Kingdom

16. The e-biz project of Indian Government has been awarded to

a. Wipro technologies b. Infosys technologies

c. Polaris Software d. Tata Consultancy services

17. “BIG Entertainment” is the name of the company that belongs to the stable of

a. Reliance b. AV Birla Group c. Tatas d. Times Group

18. Alcoa, Xstrata, RIO Tinto and BHP Billiton are the names of the companies in the field of

a. Oil Exploration b. FMCG c. Metals & Mining d. Agro products

19. “Renminbi” is the currency of

a. Ireland b. Phillipines c. Malaysia d. China

20. The headquarters of WTO are at

a. Paris b. New York c. Geneva d. Rio de Janerio

21. Name the current prime minister of United Kingdom from the options.

a. Gordon Brown b. David Cameron c. Justin Green d. ED Miliband

22. Select the correct author- book match.

Author	Book
a. George Bush	(i) Under the dome
b. John Grisham	(ii) Decision Points
c. Stephen King	(iii) The Finkler Question
d. Howard Jacobson	(iv) Confession

A. a – (ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

B. a – (ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

C. a – (ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)

D. a – (i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)

23. What was the rank of India in overall medals tally in just concluded Commonwealth games 2010?

a. 3^rd b. 2^nd c. 4^th d. 1^st

24. Which writer has won Nobel Prize 2010 for literature?

a. Salman Rushdie b. Mario Vargas Llosa c. Jorge Luis Borges d. Doris Lessing

25. Of the following brands, choose the brand which Amir Khan does not endorse?

a. Mahindra bikes b. Tata sky c. Etisalat d. Cinthol

Answer key

1. d 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B

6. c 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C

11. d 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. D

16. b 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. C

21. b 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. d

Multiple Choice SET 2

1. Which is the correct Stock-Exchange-Country Match?

Stock-Index	Country
a. Borsa Italiana	(i) Australia
b. Asia-Pacific Exchange	(ii) Argentina
c. Cordoba Stock Exchange	(iii) China
d. Shenzen Stock Exchange	(iv) Italy

A. (a) –(iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

B. (a) –(iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

C. (a) –(iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

D. (a) –(iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

2. The author Mario Vargas Llosa Who has recently won Nobel Prize 2010 for literature belongs to nationality

a. Argentina b. Bolivia c. Peru d. Brazil

3. Who was the winner of “Golden Ball” award in 2010 FIFA World Cup?

a. Wesley Snejider b. Diego Forlan c. David Villa d. Moroslav Klose

4. Match the President, Currency and Country.

President	Currency	Country
a. Christian Wulff	(i) Euro	1. Panama
b. Luiz La Silva	(ii) Euro	2. Spain
c. Jose Luis Rodriguez	(iii) Real	3. Germany
d. Ricardo Alberto	(iv) Balboa	4. Brazil

A. (a) –(iv)- 1, (b) – (i)- 2, (c) – (iii)-3, (d) – (ii)-4

B. (a) –(i)- 3, (b) – (iii)- 4, (c) – (ii)-2, (d) – (iv)-1

C. (a) –(iv)- 2, (b) – (ii)- 3, (c) – (iii)-1, (d) – (i)-4

A. (a) –(ii)- 1, (b) – (iii)- 2, (c) – (i)-3, (d) – (ii)-4

5. Which female tennis player won 2010 Wimbledon Championship?

a. Vera Zvoraneva b. Kim Clijsters c. Serena Williams d. Maria Sharapova

6. The abbreviations given in the first column are explained in the second column. Select the option which has all wrong explanations of the abbreviations.

a. UNICEF	(i) United Nations Development Program
b. ANC	(ii) National Institute of Insemination Technology
c. TRAI	(iii) African National Council
d. UNDP	(iv) United Nations International Children Education Forum
e. NIIT	(v) India Satellite Research Organization
f. ISRO	(vi) Intellectual Property
g. IP	(vii) Telecom Regulatory Authority Of India

A. (a)- (iv), (c) – (vii), (b)-(iii), (d)-(i)

B. (a)- (iv), (f) – (v), (g)-(vi), (d)-(i)

C. (e)- (ii), (b) – (iii), (f)-(v), (d)-(i)

D. (a)- (iv), (b) – (iii), (f)-(v), (e)-(ii)

7. Identify the cricketer who has batted in all the positions (from 1 to 11) in test match cricket.

a. Ashok Mankad b. Wilfred Rhodes c. Garfield Sobers d. Lance Cairns

8. What is RED HERRING in an IPO?

a. Prospectus b. Submission of form

c. Funds generated during IPO d. Minimum offer per share

9. Who declares the Credit Policy of India?

a. The Finance Ministry b. Reserve Bank Of India

c. The Commerce Ministry d. The Indian Banks Association

10. Temujin was the famous historical character of the world, but can you identify him by his original name?

a. Babar b. Akbar c. Genghis Khan d. Kublai Khan

11. Which city is also known as “Windy City”?

a. Rome b. New York c. Ottawa d. Chicago

12. Which country has the largest road network in the world?

a. India b. USA c. China d. Russia

13. One barrel of Oil is approximately equal to how many litres?

a. 200 b. 150 c. 120 d. 160

14. Who invented Computer laptop?

a. Arthur Wynna – USA b. Q .Daimler – Germany

c. Sinclair – Britain d. Adam Osborne – USA

15. Which of the following countries is a member of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?

a. Venezuela b. Russia c. Panama d. USA

16. Indian Standard time is based on the longitude of 82.5 degrees passing through which of the following places?

a. Mirzapur, UP b. Jabalpur, MP

c. Nagpur, Maharashtra d. Jaipur, Rajasthan

17. Which of the following pair is not correct?

a. George Harrison – Sitar b. Ustad Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod

c. Dr. Kamala Shankar – Tabla d. HariPrasad Chaurasia – Flute

18. At what frequency SENSEX calculation carried out?

a. Every half an hour b. 6 times a day c. Every hour d. Real time

19. Burj Khalifa is

a. A mosque in UAE b. A University in UAE

c. A small mountain range in UAE d. Tallest Skyscraper in World

20. Match the following national parks with their respective states.

National Parks	States
a. Bandipur National Park	(i) Uttar Pradesh
b. Dachigam National Park	(ii) Rajasthan
c. Sariska National Park	(iii) Karnataka
d. Dudhwa national Park	(iv) Jammu & Kashmir

A. (a) –(iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

B. (a) –(iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

C. (a) –(iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

D. (a) –(iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

21. What is the colour of the black-box in a commercial plane?

a. Obviously black b. Green c. Orange d. Yellow

22. Find the person who plays the odd sport out of the following.

a. Chris Evert b. Tiger Woods c. Annika Sorenstam d. Ernie Els

23. Who was the second person to set foot on moon?

a. Edwin Aldrin b. Neil Armstrong c. Michael Collins d. Yuri Gagarin

24. Who is the current chairman of Reserve Bank of India?

a. C. Rangrajan b. Y.V.Reddy c. D. Subbarao d. S. Gopinath

25. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner Of India?

a. Naveen Chawla b. B.B. Tandon c. N. Gopalaswami d. S.Y. Quraishi

Answer key

1. c 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. D

7. b 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. B

13. d 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. D

19. d 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. d

Multiple Choice SET 3:

IIFT GK QUESTIONS SET 1:

1. Identify the INCORRECT statement about GATT.

(1) India was among the 23 original signatories of GATT.

(2) GATT too was constituted at the Bretton Woods conference along with the IMF and World Bank.

(3) After GATT was set up in 1947, there was a series of negotiating rounds culminating in Uruguay round, finally signed at Marrakech.

(4) None of the above.

2. What does TRIMS stand for?

(1) Trade Related International Movements (both goods and services).

(2) Trade in Resources, which are Internationally Mobilized.

(3) Trade Related Investment Measures.

(4) Trade Rising in International Markets.

3. The classification of subsides in different boxes of amber, blue and green, at WTO is done in the area of:

(1) Agriculture (2) Textiles (3) Pharmaceuticals (4) Services

4. The country’s first corporatised port is at:

(1) Ennore (2) Vishakhapatnam (3) Cochin (4) Mormugao

5. ‘National treatment’ provisions under the WTO implies

(1) treating one’s different trading partners equally.

(2) equal treatment for foreign and domestic goods and services once the foreign goods have entered domestic market.

(3) treating one’s trading partner preferentially than domestic traders.

(4) giving special treatment to goods and services produced in domestic market.

6. Which is the world’s biggest exporting nation?

(1) Japan (2) USA (3) Germany (4) China

7. The last country to join WTO on October 13, 2004 is

(1) Cambodia (2) Brazil (3) Botswana (4) Chad

8. Which of the following became the first company to cross the 50 million subscriber mark in mobile phone services?

(1) Reliance Communications (2) Vodafone (3) BSNL (4) Bharti Airtel

9. Which of the following Countries is not a member of WTO?

(1) Brazil (2) Pakistan (3) China (4) Russia

10. A complaint in WTO is processed at:

(1) The GATT – Bretton woods standing committee

(2) The trade policy review body

(3) The dispute settlement body

(4) The General Council

11. Iran, Iraq and North Korea (President Bush’s axis of evil),

(1) are permanent WTO members.

(2) have observer status in WTO.

(3) have been imposed sanctions and boycotted by WTO.

(4) have no formal association with WTO.

12. EPCG starts for

(1) Excise protection of Capital goods

(2) Export promotion Capital goods

(3) Earnings provided by Capital goods

(4) Excelling in performance through capital goods

13. ‘Cairns Group’ is a group of countries that accounts for more than 20% of global exports of:

(1) Wildlife (2) Agriculture (3) Textiles (4) Jems and Jwellery

14. India’s major competitor in exporting tea worldwide is

(1) Sri Lanka (2) Thailand (3) Russia (4) Myanmar

15. Japan, Australia and China have imposed bans on fruits, like Mangoes and Grapes, from India on account of presence of fruit flies. This would come under

(1) tariff barriers (2) sanitary and phytosanitary measures

(3) dumping (4) non trade barrier

16. The Apex body regulating foreign trade in India is

(1) Federation of India Export Organisation (FIEO) (2) Export Promotion Council, India

(3) Exim Bank (4) Ministry of Foreign Trade

17. The US corporation which acquired the basmati patent:

(1) Monsanto (2) Rice tech (3) DuPont (4) Dow

18. A specifically delineated duty free enclave, deemed to be a foreign territory, for the purposes of trade operations of duties and tariffs is known as SEZ. It stands for

(1) Special Economic Zone (2) Special Export Zone

(3) Specifically Export Zone (4) Specific Economic Zone

19. Which of the following has tied up with lifestyle design company Giorgio Armani for the design of its portable devices recently?

(1) Samsung (2) Sony (3) Nokia (4) LG

20. Which of the following sells its automotive batteries at shops branded ‘Powerzone’?

(1) Standard Furukawa (2) Amara Raja

(3) Exide Industries (4) Tata Auto-components Company (TACO)

21. Which of the statements is NOT correct, in reference to the trends in Indian exports, over the past 10 years?

(1) The share of manufactured goods in total exports has increased.

(2) Exports in petroleum products have declined sharply.

(3) India’s exports to Asia and Oceania, Africa, America and Latin American countries have seen an upward trend.

(4) India’s exports to West Europe have plummeted.

22. A currency that has a continuing high level of demand, relative to supply, in the market of foreign exchange is often called as

(1) soft currency (2) hard currency (3) cold currency (4) hot currency

23. India has a share of .67% of world exports, whereas China’s share is

(1) 2% (2) 3.9% (3) 5% (4) 4.2%

24. In the centre state financial relations in India, Gadgil formula is used in:

(1) division of tax revenues. (2) formulating the policy for fresh borrowings.

(3) writing off state’s indebtness to the center. (4) allocating central plan assistance between states.

25. ‘Non tariff’ barriers imply

(1) regulations relating to environment, health and safety (EHS) to restrict international trade.

(2) imposing high duties on imported goods.

(3) applying physical barriers and check points to prevent inflow of foreign goods.

(4) None of the above

26. The ‘Theory of Comparative Advantage’ in Economics is related to

(1) Welfare Economics (2) Managerial Economics

(3) International Economics (4) Micro Economics

27. WTO is often criticized for being anti democratic. But the fact most contrary to it, is that

(1) dispute resolution is achieved at the WTO by consensus.

(2) all views can be expressed at ‘People Forum’ just outside WTO, HQ in Geneva.

(3) there are substantial elected officials at WTO.

(4) every one, of the 148 members, has a veto over changing rules.

28. The vast expansion of international trade, in the second half of the 20th century, owed much to

(1) a new method of shipping goods in containers.

(2) the opening up of Brazil, South America’s largest market.

(3) Change in the economic rationale of new economists, who encouraged international trade.

(4) Industrial revolution.

29. The tariff, imposed on imports to offset the impact of subsidy given by government in the country of origin of commodity, is known as:

(1) Anti dumping duty (2) Customs duty (3) Countervailing duty (4) Ad Valorem duty

30. The stocks of commodities held by the countries or international organizations to moderate the price fluctuations are called:

(1) Contingency stocks (2) Buffer stocks (3) Shock absorbing stocks (4) Emergency stocks

31. The difference in value over a period of time of a country’s imports and exports of merchandise is known as:

(1) Balance of Trade (2) Balance of Payment (3) Export import balance (4) Trade gap

32. ‘Dollar drain’ implies:

(1) Sharp devaluation of dollar, thus value of dollar going down the drain.

(2) a situation when country’s imports from USA exceed its export to USA, resulting in dollar reserves plummeting.

(3) fake US dollars flooding financial markets.

(4) None of the above

33. Tarapore Committee is associated with:

(1) select markets and thrust products. (2) implementation of SEZs.

(3) utilizing the burgeoning forex reserves. (4) capital account convertibility.

34. Which of these has brands like CellOne for its mobile services, Bfone for fixed line telephone and Tarang for CDMA-based WLL limited mobility phones?

(1) Reliance Communications (2) MTNL (3) BSNL (4) Bharti Airtel

35. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the regional grouping ASEAN?

(1) Singapore (2) Brunei (3) Thailand (4) China

36. Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) does NOT have following country as its member.

(1) Bangladesh (2) Nepal (3) Sri Lanka (4) Thailand

37. A small country that is economically dependent on a single export commodity and is typically governed by a dictator or armed forces is known as

(1) Banana Republic (2) Eggs in Single Basket Republic

(3) Weather Republic (4) Crutches Republic

38. Which advertising agency devised the campaign for the change of brand name Hutch to Vodafone recently?

(1) Rediffusion DYR (2) Ogilvy & Mather

(3) J Walter Thompson (4) McCann Ericsson

39. Tripitakas are the sacred books of:

(1) Jainism (2) Buddhism (3) Hinduism (4) Shaivism

40. The Great Bath of the Indus Valley Civilization was discovered in:

(1) Harappa (2) Lothal (3) Mohenjodaro (4) Ropar

41. Buland Darwaza, built by Akbar, is to commemorate the victory of

(1) Orrisa (2) Bengal (3) Delhi (4) Gujrat

42. The latest Global Information Technology Report ranks India

(1) 40^th (2) 50^th (3) 14^th (4) 15th

43. Which company recently launched a premium prêt denim line in the Indian fashion arena, co–branding it with John Abraham?

(1) Killer (2) Wrangler (3) Lee Copper (4) Milky Way

44. Which company is planning to launch a multi–purpose vehicle called “Ingenio”?

(1) Mahindra and Mahindra (2) Maruti Udyog

(3) Eicher Motors (4) Isuzu Motors

45. The well–known confectionary brand “Nutrine” has been acquired by

(1) Cadbury (2) Modern Foods

(3) Godrej Beverages and Foods (4) Perfetti

46. Which company joined hands with Nasscom (National Association of Software and Service Companies) and Tata Teleservices for developing 65 village resource centres to provide valuable information in education, healthcare and agriculture through wireless connectivity to residents of nine coastal States?

(1) Computer Associates (2) CISCO (3) Qualcomm (4) Motorola

47. Pick out the incorrect pair.

(1) Rajat Gupta – McKinsey and Company (2) Arun Sarin – Vodafone

(3) Arun Netravali – Bell Labs (4) Rajesh Hukku – IBM

Answers Key

1.(4) 2.(3) 3.(1) 4.(1) 5.(2) 6.(2) 7.(1) 8.(4) 9.(4) 10.(3) 11.(4) 12.(2) 13.(2) 14.(1) 15.(2) 16.(1) 17.(2) 18.(1) 19.(4) 20.(2) 21.(2) 22.(2) 23.(2) 24.(4) 25.(1) 26.(1) 27.(4) 28.(1) 29.(3) 30.(2) 31.(1) 32.(2) 33.(4) 34.(3) 35.(4) 36.(2) 37.(1) 38.(2) 39.(2) 40.(3) 41.(4) 42.(1) 43.(2) 44.(1) 45.(3) 46.(3) 47.(4)

Questions from previous years IIFT papers

1. Who completed the work of Qutab Minar? Ans. Iltutmish

2. Who was associated with the construction of Golden Temple? Ans. Guru Ramdas

3. GE’s technology center in Bangalore is named after whom? Ans: Jack Welch

4. Which newspaper was started by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru? Ans. National Herald

5. The Parliament of state legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member is absent without

permission for……. Ans. 120 days.

6. “Spoil yourself” is associated with ……. ? Ans. Indigo

7. President of Nasscom is…… Ans. Mr. SOM Mittal

8. Arthur Anderson was the auditor of which of these companies? Ans.- Enron

9. Who is the Chairman of Britannia Industries? Ans. Mr. Nusli Wadia

10. Where is the Head Quarters of European Central Bank is located at? Ans. Frankfurt

11. Which of the following person is the present Chairperson of Reliance? Ans. Mukesh

Ambani

12. Which is the only country in the world, which has a convergence bill for telecom

media? Ans. India

13. According to the latest release by Tourism ministry Delhi topped foreign tourist arrivals

among the Indian states. Which among the following states was number 1 in terms of domestic tourists arrival?

(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Maharashtra (4) Karnataka Ans.(2)

5. Which of the following gas is used in the decorative lights? Ans. Neon

14. What is the Strait between Srilanka and India is called? Ans. Adam’s Bridge

15. From which of the following city the ‘Morning Star’ newspaper is published? Ans. London

TATA GROUP: The Tata Group (Marathi: टाटा समूह) (Hindi: टाटा समूह) is a multinational conglomerate company headquartered in Mumbai, India. In terms of market capitalization and revenues, Tata Group is the largest private corporate group in India. It has interests in steel, automobiles, information technology, communication, power, tea and hospitality. The Tata Group has operations in more than 85 countries across six continents and its companies export products and services to 80 nations. The Tata Group comprises 114 companies and subsidiaries in seven business sectors,^[3] 27 of which are publicly listed. 65.8% of the ownership of Tata Group is held in charitable trusts.^[4] Companies which form a major part of the group include Tata Steel, Corus Steel, Tata Motors, Jaguar,Land Rover,Tata Consultancy Services, Tata Technologies, Tata Tea,Tetley, Titan Industries, Tata Power, Tata Communications, Tata Teleservices and the Taj Hotels.

16. Which country is the largest producer of Tin in the world? Ans. Bolivia

17. What does TRIPS stands for? Ans. Trade related Intellectual Property Rights

18. Who coined the term USP ? Ans. Jack Trout

19. What does EPZ stands for? Ans. Export Processing Zone

20. Which was the first product manufactured by Sony? Ans. Rice cooker

21. Ranbaxy calls it ‘Caverta’, what is it popularly known as? Ans. Viagra

22. Tatas have taken over which PSU? Ans. VSNL

23. Which country’s PM receives the highest salary in terms of dollars? Ans. Japan

24. Who is the lowest paid CEO in the world? Ans. Steve Jobs, Apple computers, $1 annually

25. The word ‘Knesset’ is relates to which of the following country? Ans. Israel

26. Which is the suffix used for a German Company? Ans. -leich

27. Which is the oldest public sector bank in India? Ans. Allahabad Bank

28. Which popular car audio system company’s name when translated to German means” blue

point”? Ans. Blaupunkt

29. Indian kids channel Hungama.com has been acquired, for a reported sum of $30 mn, by

(1) Walt Disney (2) Viacom (3) Bloomberg (4) B Sky B Ans.(1)

30. What is the value of 20°C in Fahrenheit? Ans. 48F

31. Match the following states with their capitals:

(1) Uttranchal A. Kohima

(2) Andhra Pradesh B. Shillong

(3) Nagaland C. Dehradoon

(4) Meghalaya D. Hyderabad

Ans. 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

32. Coffee store chain, Barnie’s, recently entered the Indian market with plans to invest close to

Rs. 75 crore to open 300 stores across the country in the next five year. It belongs to

(1) Canada (2) USA (3) UK (4) Italy Ans.(2)

33. ‘Imagine Cup’, an international competition for young technologists is organised by global IT giant

(1) SAP (2) Oracle (3) Microsoft (4) Macromedia Ans.(3)

34. India’s chief negotiator at WTO is …….? Ans. Gopal K Pillai

35. Which country has the highest rating in HDI. Ans. Norway

36. Who acted in the role of Harry Potter? Ans. Daniel Radcliffe

37. Why does an egg floats on salt water? Ans. Because it is less Dense than salt water

38. What is Certiorari writ in Courts? Ans. Certiorari is the legal term in ‘Roman, English

and American Law referring to a type of Writ seeking judicial review’.

39. Which of the following has been rated as the No.1 country in World Economic Forum

(Finland, US, Canada, Denmark) Ans. Denmark

40. When does Euro becomes finally applicable in Europe? Ans. 22nd May 2001.

41. Who founded e-bay.com? Ans. San Jose

42. Which is the No.1 Fortune 500 Company for the year 2010? Ans. Wal Mart Stores

43. Which is the world’s first mobile virus? Ans. Cabir

44. Which is not a member of the European Union (Switzerland, Portugal, Spain, Germany)

Ans. Switzerland

Multiple Choice Set 4

51. ONGC Videsh Limited (OVL) has recently won a joint bid to acquire Omimex De Columbia, a Columbian oil firm, in partnership with:

(1) Rosnfet (2) Sinopec (3) Malaysian Oil Bhd (4) Reliance Petrochemical

52. With the presence in 27 countries…. which company is called “three oceans”?

(1) Sanyo (2) Microsoft (3) Sun Microsys (4) Nokia

53. Which country is famous for Lego?

(1) Australia (2) Denmark (3) Czechoslovakia (4) India

54. Which auto major’s head quarter is known as four cylinder tower?

(1) Toyota (2) Mahindra (3) BMW (4) Ford

55. “Bata” shoes originated in which country:

(1) Czechoslovakia (2) India (3) Korea (4) USA

56. Which former Indian test cricketer is the representative of Musco lighting in India?

(1) Sachin Tendulkar (2) Kapil Dev (3) Ravi Shastri (4) Mohinder Amarnath

57. Zzapi Nercor is the mascot of which Indian pizza company?

(1) Pizza Corner (2) Pizza Hut (3) Spicy Pizza (4) None of these

58. Top Gear is the retail outlet of which Indian company?

(1) HP (2) BP (3) IOC (4) NACL

59. Which search engine was first named Architext and created by a group of Stanford

University grads? (1) MSN (2) Search (3) Excite (4) Dot Com

60. What is the name of ‘Tainwala Chemicals’ mosquito repellant brand?

(1) Good Night (2) Moon Light (3) All Out (4) Casper

61. Which company is the official ice-cream supplier to Wimbledon?

(1) Wall’s (2) Vadilal (3) Amul (4) None of these

62. Which was the first insurance company in India to start a 24 hour call centre?

(1) LIC (2) Reliance General Insurance (3) Tata AIG (4) HDFC

63. Rasik Dhariwal is the owner of which Gutkha company?

(1) Baba (2) Manikchand (3) Panparag (4) Manikram

64. Which Indian retail chain was started by former Carona employee B.S Nagesh?

(1) Shopper’s Stop (2) Big Bazar (3) Landmark (4) Westside

65. Which company was first founded and registered in Delaware, US as Quantum Computer Services?

(1) LOA (2) AOL (3) Oracle (4) Microsoft

66. MAT expands to …..

(1) Medium Advisory Tax (2) Minimum Accounted Tax (3) Minimum Automated Tax (4) Minimum Alternate Tax

67. Which of the following represents the expansion of ‘T’ in ‘TIN’?

(1) Trade (2) Tax (3) Transmission (4) Total

68. Awaz is the Hindi business news channel that belongs to the stable of …

(1) NDTV (2) CNBC TV 18 (3) Zee News (4) Sony TV

69. ‘Make your own road’ is the catchphrase that you would associate with….

(1) Chevrolet Tavera (2) ata Safari (3) Tata Sumo (4) Ford Endeavor

70. The maximum revenue to the government comes from….

(1) Service tax (2) Custom duty (3) Excise duty (4) Income tax

71. Identify the indirect tax from the given options.

(1) Wealth Tax (2) Gift Tax (3) Sales Tax (4) Corporation Tax

72. Which of the following represents the expansion of ‘R’ in RFID?

(1) Regional (2) Radio (3) Recorded (4) Reliance

73. This bank, in collaboration with NGOs, launched the ’social card’ for those people who want to contribute to the welfare of the society but either do not have time to do so or do not know which because they would like to support. Can you identify the name of the bank in question from the given options?

(1) Canara Bank (2) SBI (3) Punjab National Bank (4) Bank of India

74. Which of these became the first cellular service provider in India to launch a call filter service countrywide that would allow subscribers to filter incoming calls by blocking specific numbers recently?

(1) Reliance Communications (2) Vodafone (3) BSNL (4) Bharti Airtel

75. The year in which the World Bank was incorporated in the UN system was….

(1) 1994 (2) 1946 (3) 1947 (4) 1949

76. Which of the following personalities is the author of ‘Jeh: A Life of JRD Tata’?

(1) RM Lala (2) BK Dadabhoy (3) Dwijendra Tripathi (4) BK Karanjia

77. Identify the incorrect match. Automobile company Car Model

(1) Fiat Automobiles Panda (2) Skoda Automobiles Fabia (3) Honda Automobiles Civic (4) All of them are correct

78. Where was Motorola’s sixth global design centre, its first in India, launched?

(1) Bangalore (2) Chennai (3) Delhi (4) Pune

79. Which insurance company runs a credit card business in a joint venture with GE Money and Corporation Bank?

(1) Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) (2) Bajaj Allianz (3) Birla Sun Life (4) Aviva Life Insurance

80. Which promoter family sold off its stake in India Cements in 2007?

(1) Murugappa (2) Sankar (3) Srinivasan (4) Iyengar

81. Prannoy Roy’s “NDTV MetroNation” is the first city specific English language channel that was launched in _____ recently.

(1) Delhi (2) Chennai (3) Mumbai (4) Bangalore

82. What is the DTH service launched recently by Chennai based Sun TV Group called?

(1) Sun Sky (2) Sun Satellite (3) Sun Network (4) Sun Direct

83. Which entertainment channel launched a nationwide hunt for India’s first space tourist?

(1) Zee Café (2) Zone Reality (3) Bindass (4) Zee

84. BigStreet is the out-of-home (OOH) advertising venture of ___________

(1) Reliance Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Group (ADAG) (2) Mudra (3) Nimbus (4) Sahara India

85. Which is the first magazine from Condé Nast, world’s leading publisher of lifestyle and fashion magazines, launched in India?

(1) Vogue (2) Glamour (3) Condé Nast Traveller (4) Vanity Fair

86. Where would you find your deltoid muscle?

(1) Big muscle on the shoulder (2) Big muscle on the feet (3) Big muscle on the thyroid (4) Big muscle on the elbow

87. American police have SWAT teams, what do the initials stand for?

(1) Special Weapons & Tactics (2) Specialized Weapons & Tactics (3) Specialized Warriors & Technique (4) None of these

88. Which public sector oil refining major launched a pilot project to build cinema halls at its highways fuel stations in Gujarat and tied up with Cinemata, a film distribution unit of SET?

(1) IOC (2) BPCL (3) HPCL (4) IBP

89. Which of these acquired the acquisition of polyester and textile manufacturing assets of the Malaysia-based Hualon Corporation?

(1) Tata Chemicals (2) Aditya Birla Nuvo (3) Reliance Industries Ltd (4) Arvind Mills

90. Which of these owns the Star Bazaar hypermarket brand in India?

(1) Trent (2) Future Group (3) Shopper’s Stop (4) Reliance Retail

91. Rural retail chain, Hariyali Kisaan Bazaar, is owned by________

(1) DCM Shriram (2) ITC Agro (3) Mahindra & Mahindra (4) Chambal Fertilsers

92. Which famous European company was founded by cousins of Communist ideologue Karl Marx?

(1) Siemens (2) Philips (3) Bayer (4) Volkswagen

93. Which acid gives nettles their sting?

(1) Formic acid (2) Acetic acid (3) Carbonic acid (4) Sulphuric acid

94. For their discovery of what did Watson, Crick and Evans win the 1962 Nobel Prize for medicine?

(1) WBC (2) RNA (3) DNA (4) Genes

95. ‘Air Wick’ is the air freshener brand from:

(1) Reckitt Benckiser (2) Godrej Sara Lee (3) Marico Industries (4) Hindustan Unilever

96. Which was the album the Beatles recorded the last time together?

(1) Abbey Road (2) Any Road (3) Every thing for you (4) Hard days night

97. Who painted the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel?

(1) Leonardo da Vinci (2) Michelangelo (3) MF Hussain (4) None of these

98. What is the sport in which you could get into a headlock?

(1) Wrestling (2) Rugby (3) Baseball (4) Boxing

99. Which business family owns the world’s oldest active sailing ship, ‘The Foundroyant’ which started its life in Mumbai in 1817?

(1) Wadia (2) Tata (3) Godrej (4) Bajaj

100. Which is the country where reggae music originated?

(1) Barbados (2) USA (3) Russia (4) Jamaica

Answers Key

51.(2) 52.(1) 53.(2) 54.(3) 55.(1) 56.(2) 57.(1) 58.(3) 59.(3) 60.(4) 61.(1) 62.(3) 63.(2) 64.(1) 65.(2) 66.(4) 67.(2) 68.(2) 69.(2) 70.(3) 71.(3) 72.(2) 73.(2) 74.(2) 75.(3) 76.(2) 77.(4) 78.(1) 79.(1) 80.(2) 81.(1) 82.(4) 83.(3) 84.(1) 85.(1) 86.(1) 87.(1) 88.(2) 89.(3) 90.(1) 91.(1) 92.(2) 93.(1) 94.(3) 95.(2) 96.(1) 97.(2) 98.(1) 99.(1) 100.(4)

Multiple Choice SET 5

1. Which business was sold off by Richard Branson of Virgin group in 2008?

(1) Music records (2) Business process outsourcing (BPO) (3) Foods & restaurants (4) Publishing

2. Which company launched its baby care brand ‘Baby Dreams’?

(1) Wipro Consumer Care (2) JL Morison (3) Hindustan Unilever (4) Johnson & Johnson

3. Which famous cosmetics company launched its Visage range of products in India?

(1) L’Oreal (2) Oriflame (3) Maybelline (4) Nivea

4. Which cosmetics company was founded by Dame Anita Roddick?

(1) Avon (2) Body Shop (3) Christian Dior (4) Elizabeth Arden

5. Which of the following is not a brand owned by Shahnaz Hussain?

(1) Veda Dynamics (2) Kaya Skin clinics (3) Shahnaz Herbal (4) Forever Beautiful

6. Which of the following exports marine products under the Shogun, Hima, Gold Seal and Tara brands?

(1) Godrej Agro (2) Nestle India (3) Temptation Foods (4) Hindustan Unilever

7. EL Rothschild Ltd and Del Monte Pacific Ltd are JV partners of _____ in its farm products foray.

(1) Reliance Industries Ltd (2) Bharti (3) Godrej (4) AV Birla

8. Which of the following is not a snack brand owned by PepsiCo Company Frito Lay?

(1) Lays (2) Bingo (3) Kurkure (4) Uncle Chipps

9. Which beer giant operates in India through its 100% owned subsidiary–South Asia Breweries?

(1) Carlsberg (2) Anheuser-Busch (3) Heineken (4) Scottish & Newcastle

10. Coca-Cola India’s marketing communication campaign–‘ghoonth bhar sharart kar ley’ is for:

(1) Fanta (2) Minute Maid (3) Diet Coke (4) Thums up

11. Which cooking oil brand is owned by US-based $26-billion Bunge Ltd in India?

(1) Dalda (2) Dhara (3) Saffola (4) Postman

12.Tata Group’s Indian Hotels acquired Ritz Carlton Hotel in ______and Campton Palace in _____ 2007.

(1) Boston, San Francisco (2) New York, Seattle (3) Las Vegas, Washington DC (4) Atlanta, Honolulu

13. The Trident Hotel brand in India is owned by________

(1) Eastern India Hotels (2) Tata Group’s Indian Hotels (3) ITC Hotels (4) Park Hotels

14.Which of the following launched Penryn chips?

(1) American Micro devices (AMD) (2) Intel (3) Texas Instruments (4) Samsung

15.Which of the following launched of its Barcelona processor?

(1) American Micro devices (AMD) (2) Intel (3) Texas Instruments (4) Samsung

16. Which of these acquired American PC maker Gateway?

(1) Hewlett Packard (2) Acer (3) IBM (4) BenQ

17. Which IT company introduced its social networking site called Mash in India?

(1) Microsoft (2) Yahoo (3) Google (4) America Online

18. Which Japanese company introduced Robina–its 1.2 metre tall humanoid robot that can comunicate

with visitors verbally and also with gestures?

(1) Toshiba (2) Toyota (3) Hitachi (4) Honda

19. Which TV channel is promoted by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M Karunanidhi?

(1) Vijay TV (2) Sun TV (3) K tv (4) Kalaignar Tv

20. TV 18 Group was rechristened as________

(1) Newsline18 (2) Network18 (3) Media18 (4) News18

21. The turmeric soap brand ‘Wave’ was recently introduced by________

(1) Wipro Consumer Care (2) Karnataka Soaps (3) Godrej Soaps (4) Nirma Soaps

22. What is the trade name of polytetrafluoroethylene?

(1) Nylon (2) Teflon (3) Rayon (4) Rexene

23. Which of the following was an attempt in late March of 1942 by the British government to secure

Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II? The mission was headed by a senior left-wing politician and government minister in the War Cabinet of Prime Minister Winston Churchill.

(1) Rowlett Act (2) Cripps mission (3) Wavell Plan (4) Cabinet Mission Plan

24. Bravia brand of LCD TVs was introduced by____________ (1) Sony (2) LG (3) Samsung (4) Philips

25. Mahabalipuram in Tamil Nadu is a masterpiece of which dynasty’s architecture?

(1) Pallava (2) Chola (3) Chalukya (4) Rashtrakuta

26. Which institution publishes the World Investment Report every year?

(1) World Trade Organisation (WTO) (2) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (3) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) (4) World Bank

27. Which economist was awarded the ‘Commander of the Order of the Southern Cross’ for his pioneering work in introducing VAT in Brazil?

(1) Parthasarathi Shome (2) C Rangarajan (3) Vijay Kelkar (4) Ashok Lahiri

28. Zahi Hawass is a famous__________ (1) Novelist (2) Zoologist (3) Archaeologist (4) Journalist

29. Of which cash crop is “Chandragiri”, a new variety that was introduced in Bangalore?

(1) Silk (2) Coffee (3) Pepper (4) Rubber

30. What is the train plying between Munabao in Rajasthan and Kokhrapar in Sindh, Pakistan called?

(1) Friendship Express (2) Thar Express (3) Samjhauta Express (4) Kutch Express

31. Which of the following facts about the Yangtze River in China is/are true?

I. It is the longest river in Asia

II. It is the second longest in the world, after the Nile in Africa

III. It flows from its source in Qinghai Province and drains into East China Sea

(1) I, II & III (2) I & II only (3) II and III only (4) III and I only

32. The Lumière brothers were the pioneers in which industry?

(1) Automobile (2) Motion pictures (3) Printing & publishing (4) Aviation

33. Indian Petrochemicals Ltd is a subsidiary of________

(1) Reliance Industries Ltd (2) Indian Oil Company (3) Essar Oil (4) Bharat Petroleum

34. Which famous UK based football club is owned by the Glazer family?

1) Manchester United (2) Liverpool (3) Chelsea (4) Arsenal

35. Which popular brand of vegetable oil is market by Amrit Corp Ltd?

(1) Gagan (2) Postman (3) Dalda (4) Dhara

Answers Key

1.(1) 2.(2) 3.(4) 4.(2) 5.(2) 6.(4) 7.(2) 8.(2) 9.(1) 10.(1) 11.(1) 12.(1) 13.(1) 14.(2) 15.(1) 16.(2) 17.(2) 18.(1) 19.(4) 20.(2) 21.(2) 22.(2) 23.(2) 24.(1) 25.(1) 26.(1) 27.(3) 28.(1) 29.(3) 30.(2) 31.(4) 32.(2) 33.(1) 34.(1) 35.(1)

Multiple Choice SET 6

1. Where did the Steve Ballmer work before Bill Gates persuaded him to join Microsoft?

(1) Unilever (2) Procter & Gamble (3) General Electric (4) 3M

2. US want Iran to stop enriching:

(1) Plutonium (2) Uranium (3) Thorium (4) Heavy Water

3. Which is the capital of Israel?

(1) Jerusalem (2) Tel Aviv (3) Gaza (4) Haifa

4. Who is the President of South Africa?

(1) Thabo Mbeki (2) Jacob Zuma (3) Nelson Mandela (4) Walter Sisulu

5. In which state is Microsoft headquartered?

(1) Washington (2) California (3) Utah (4) Texas

6. Which retailing company has introduced the snacks brand ‘Tasty Treat’?

(1) Pantaloon (2) Reliance Retail (3) Subhiksha (4) Shopper’s Stop

7. Which of the following is world’s nuclear watchdog?

(1) Atomic Energy Regulation Board (2) Nuclear Supplier’s Group

(3) International Atomic Energy Agency (4) Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty

8. Who ruled Zimbabwe when it was under white racist rule?

(1) Charles Kingsley (2) Ian Smith (3) Wilfred Rhodes (4) F W de Clerk

9. Wintel refers to Windows and:

(1) Telecom (2) Intel (3) Intelligent (4) International

10. Bank Melli is the biggest bank in:

(1) Iraq (2) Iran (3) Pakistan (4) Egypt

11. United Nations Security Council comprises how many members?

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20

12. What is Microsoft’s mail-server software, introduced recently, known as?

(1) Exchange (2) Postbag (3) Mail It (4) Letterman

13. Strife-torn Darfur is a province of:

(1) Ethiopia (2) Sudan (3) Somalia (4) Egypt

14. Which company is in news these days for offering free basic word-processors and spreadsheets online?

(1) Microsoft (2) Adobe (3) Google (4) Apple

15. Bill Gates helped to found Microsoft how many years ago?

(1) 25 (2) 27 (3) 29 (4) 33

16. Whose objective was to put a PC “on every desk and in every home”?

(1) Bill Gates (2) Paul Allen (3) Steve Jobs (4) Steve Ballmer

17. Symbian is a mobile phone operating system invented by:

(1) Nokia (2) Microsoft (4) Google (4) Sony

18. Bill Gates has decided to devote his time to which of the following tasks?

(1) To acquire Yahoo (2) To work for his charitable foundation

(3) To design a new version of Windows operating system (4) To supervise space research at NASA

19. Boris Tadic is the President of which Balkan country?

(1) Slovenia (2) Serbia (3) Croatia (4) Bosnia

20. Which of the following is the Sweden based direct selling cosmetics company that introduced its

product in the Indian market recently?

(1) Oriflame (2) Amway (3) Avon (4) Mary Kay

21. Which of these was launched its Superia range of natural soaps and shampoos?

(1) ITC (2) Godrej Soaps (3) Wipro Consumer Care (4) Marico

22. Which serving Head of State has authored the book “Courage-Eight Portraits”?

(1) Gordon Brown, PM of UK (2) Nicholas Sarkozy, PM of France (3) John Howard, PM of Australia (4) 23. Angela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany

23. Oxyrich is the mineral water brand from_________

(1) Manikchand (2) Mount Everest Mineral Water (3) T-Series (4) Bisleri

24. Which South India based business family set up FACT (Fertilisers and Chemicals Travancore Ltd) in 1943; the company was later nationalized by the govt of India and is one of the largest fertilizer companies in the country?

(1) Murugappas (2) Seshasayees (3) Chettiars (4) Iyengars

25. Where in Tamil Nadu was Lord Swraj Paul’s 125-acre Caparo industrial complex located?

(1) Sriperumbudur (2) Kanchipuram (3) Chidambaram (4) Pudukkottai

26. Mark out the wrong combination of famous brand names and the range of apparel launched for women.

(1) Allen Solly–Allen Solly Women’s Wear (2) Color Plus–Color Plus Woman

(3) John Players–John Players Women’s Wear (4) Park Avenue–Park Avenue Woman

27. Which MNC cement company holds controlling stakes in ACC & Ambuja Cement–two of the three largest cement companies in India?

(1) Holcim (2) Lafarge (3) Holdersbank (4) Cemex

28. Mark out the wrong statement regarding the 2011 Cricket World Cup?

(1) India will host the 2011 World cup Final (2) Pakistan and Sri Lanka will host the two semi-finals

(3) The opening ceremony will he held in Bangladesh (4) Some of the matches will be held in UAE

29. ‘Blue Tool’, ‘Don’t Leave Home Without It’ and ‘Optima’ are trademarks of:

(1) Nokia (2) Visa Cards (3) American Express Bank (4) Ericsson

30. Anil Moolchandani is the creator of which legendary Indian brand?

(1) Fevicol (2) Rupa Publishing (3) Baron (4) Archie’s Cards

31. Which flower served as Adidas’s logo till 1991?

(1) Chrysanthemum (2) Edelweiss (3) Trefoil (4) Lotus

32. The store FoodWorld is a joint venture between Dairy Farm International and which Indian group?

(1) RPG group (2) NEPC Khemka (3) Essel (4) Amalgamations

33. Art TV and Pet TV are TV brands of which TV maker?

(1) TCL (2) Thomson (3) Akai (4) Konka

34. With which product would you associate the ad “You’ll wonder where the yellow went”?

(1) Colgate (2) Pepsodent (3) Forhans (4) Tide

35. With which oil major would you associate the Glide range of engine oils?

(1) IOC (2) IBP (3) BPCL (4) HPCL

Answer Key

1.(2) 2.(2) 3.(2) 4.(2) 5.(1) 6.(1) 7.(3) 8.(2) 9.(2) 10.(2) 11.(3) 12.(1) 13.(2) 14.(3) 15.(4) 16.(1) 17.(1) 18.(2) 19.(2) 20.(1) 21.(1) 22.(1) 23.(1) 24.(2) 25.(1) 26.(3) 27.(1) 28.(4) 29.(3) 30.(4) 31.(3) 32.(1) 33.(4) 34.(2) 35.(3)

Note: Bold options are the answer of the questions given below.

1. A solemn ceremony to mark the 60th Anniversary of D-Day landings of the Allies troops during the Second World War, was held in

(a) Pearl Harbour         (b) Normandy              (c) New York                 (d) Lisbon

2. Who among the following is the Vice-President who passed away while in office?
(1) Dr. Zakir Husain (2) Shri Krishna Kant
(3) Shri Gopal Swarup Pathak (4) Shri B. D. Jatti

3. Who is the only Vice- President to have served for a period of ten years?
(1) Shri R. Venkatraman (2) Shri K. R. Narayanan
(3) Shri V. V. Giri (4) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

4. How many of the former presidents of India have been awarded the Bharat Ratna?
(1) Only one (2) Four (3) Seven (4) All

5. Two of the Presidents died while in Office. One of them is Dr. Zakir Husain. The other is
(1) Shri Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (2) Shri Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(3) Justice M. Hidayatullah (4) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

6. All of the following presidents served as Vice-presidents before taking up office as the president except for
(1) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(3) Shri V.V.Giri (4) Shri B.D. Jatti

FIRST In WORLD and India:

1. First American President to visit China: Richard Nixon (In 1972)

2. First American President to Visit India: Dwight Eisenhower (in 1959)

3. First Asian Games held: New Delhi (1951)

4. First Asian to win Nobel Prize for Literature: Rabindranath Tagore (India 1913)

5. First Asian Woman to cross the English Channel: Aarti Saha (India 1959)

6. First Bowler to claim hatrick in successive tests : Wasim Akram

7. First Chinese Piligrim to visit India: Fahien (401- 410)

8. First Cricketer to achieve a hatrick in both innings of a test match: Thomas James Matthews (Australia in 1912).

9. First European Invader of India: Alexander (Greece in 326 BC)

10. First European to visit China: Marco Polo (Italy)

11. First Foreigner to receive Bharat Ratna: Abdul Ghaffar Khan (1987)

12. First Man Cosmonaut in Space: Yuri Gagarin (Former Russia 1961)

13. First Man to walk in space: Alexi Lenov (Russia)

14. First Person to sail around the World: Ferdinand Magellan (Portugal)

15. First President of Chinese Repulbic: Yuan Shikai (1912-1916)

16. First President of Pakistan: Iskander Mirza (1956-60)

17. First Prime Minister of Pakistan: Liaquat Ali Khan (1947-51)

18. First President of USA: George Washington (1789 -1797)

19. First Secretary-General of UN: Trygve Lie (of Norway 1946-1953)

20. First Speaker in Hindi At the United Nations: Atal bihari Vajpayee

21. First Test Tube baby: Louise Joy Brown (1978, England)

22. First Woman Cosmonaut in Space: Valentina Tereshkova (Russia 1963)

23. First Women Judge of International Court of Justice: Rosalyn Higgins (Britain 1995)

24. First Woman Pilot to circle the globe: Jerrie Mock (1964)

25. First Woman President of country: Isabel Martinez de Peron (Argentina 1974-76)

26. First Woman Prime Minister of Country: Sirimavo Bhandarnayke (Sri Lanka 1960)

27. First Woman to climb Mount Everest: Junko Tabei (Japan 1975)

28. First Woman to reach North Pole: Ann Bancroft (1986)

29. First Woman President of UN General Assembly: Vijayalakshmi Pandit (India 1953)

30. First Pope to visit India: Pope Paul VI (1964)

31. First Actress of Indian talkies: Zubeida, of the movie Alam Ara (1931).

32. First Bharat Ratna Medal Winner: C.Rajgopalachari (1954).

33. First British Governor-general of Free India: Lord Louis Mountbatten

34. First Captain of Inidan test Cricket team: C.K.Nayudu (1932).

35. First Player to hit a century for Indian Cricket team: Lala Amarnath.

36. First Chairman of Rajya Sabha: S.V.Krishnamoorthy (1952).

37. First Chief Election Commissioner: Sukumar Sen (1950-1958).

38. First Chief Justice of India: Hiralal J. Kania

39. First Chief of Indian Air Staff: Sir Thomas Elmhirst.

40. First Indian Commander-in-chief: K.M.Cariappa

41. First Indian Cosmonaut to go in space: Rakesh Sharma (1984)

42. First Indian cricketer to have batted in all positions (1 to 11): Vinoo Mankad

43. First Dada Saheb Phalke Award Winner: Devika Rani

44. First Indian Field Marshal: S.H.F.J. Manekshaw

45. First Indian film star chief minister of a state: M.G.Ramachandran (Tamil Nadu)

46. First Finance Minister of Independent India: R.K.Shanmugham Chetty (1947)

47. First Indian Finance Minister to present the Budget three times in a row: Manmohan Singh (1993, 1994, 1995).

48. First Governor-general of British India: Warren hastings

49. First Indian Home Minister: Sardar Vallabhai Patel

50. First Indian ICS officer: Satyendranath Tagore.

51. First Indian Governor general of free India: C. Rajgopalachari

52. First Indian Woman President Of Indian National Congress: Sarojini Naidu (1925).

53. First Jain Tirthankara: Rishabh Dev (Total of 24 tirthankaras and Mahavir was the last of them).

54. First Indian to climb Mount Everest without Oxygen: Phu Dorjee

55. First Indian to climb Mount Everest: Tenjing Norgay (with Sir Edmund Hillary, 1953)

56. First Indian to win an individual Olympic Medal: K.D.Jadhav (Bronze in weightlifting – Helsinki 1952 Olympics).

57. First Indian member of British Parliament: Dadabhai Naoroji(1862).

58. First Indian Miss Universe: Sushmita Sen (1994)

59. First Indian Miss World: Reeta Faria (1966).

60. First Woman Chief Minister of Indian State: Sucheta Kriplani

61. First Woman Speaker of Lok Sabha: Meira kumar

62. First Youngest Indian chief Minister of state: Prafuula Mohanta, Assam at the age of 32

63. First Indian Cabinet Minister: Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

64. First Woman Minister in India: Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit.

65. First Indian Prime Minister to resign from office: Morarji Desai, 1979.

66. First Indian President to die in office: Dr. Zakir Hussain, 1969

67. First Indian Chief Minister to die in office: C.N.Annadurai (Tamil nadu)

68. First Speaker Of Lok Sabha: G.V.Mavlankar (1952-1956)

69. First Non-Congress government at centre: Janta Party with morarji Desai as PM (1977).

70. First Indian Deputy Prime Minister: Sardar Vallabhai Patel (1947-50)

71. First Indian Vice-President: S. Radhakrishnan

72. First female Indian President: Pratibha patil

73. First hindi film to be screened at United nations: Lago Raho munna Bhai

74. First Indian 3D film: My Dear kuttichathan, (malyalam film of 1984)

75. First Indian 70 mm film: Padayottam (malyalam film in 1982)\

76. First Indian movie to be nominated in Best Foreign Category for Oscars: Mother India (1957).

77. First Indian Oscar Winner: Bhanu Atahaiya (for Costume designing) for movie “Gandhi” (1982).

78. First Sound film made in India: Alam Ara (1931).

79. First silent film to be made in India: Raja Harishchandra (1913) by Dadasaheb phalke.

Prominent National parks of India:

India’s first national park was established in 1935 as Hailey National park now known as Corbett national park. As of April 2007, there are 96 national parks in India. All national parks of India encompass 1.16% of India’s total surface area.

a) Bandipur National Park: Karnataka

b) Bandhavgarh National Park: Madhya Pradesh

c) Bannerghatta national Park: Karnataka

d) Chandoli National park: Madhya Pradesh

e) Corbett national park: Uttarakhand

f) Dachigam National Park: Jammu & Kashmir.

g) Dudhwa national park: Uttar Pradesh

h) Gir national Park: Gujrat

i) Great Himalayan National Park: Himachal Pradesh

j) Guindy national park: Tamil Nadu

k) Hazaribagh National park: Jharkhand

l) Indira Gandhi National Park (Previously Annamalai national park): Tamil Nadu

m) Indravati national park: Chattisgarh

n) Kanha National park: Madhya Pradesh

o) Kaziranga national Park: Assam

p) Kudremukh National park: Karnataka

q) Nandankannan National park: Orissa

r) Panna national park: Madhya Pradesh

s) Periya National park: Kerela

t) Ranthambore National Park: Rajasthan

u) Salim Ali National park: Jammu & Kashmir

v) Sariska national park: Rajasthan

w) Simlipal National park: Orissa

x) Sunderbans National park: West Bengal

y) Valmiki National Park: Bihar

z) Rani Jhansi Marine National Park: Andaman & Nicobar

List of Indian folk dances related with respective states:

1.) Maharashtra & Goa: Koli dance.

2.) Rajasthan & Haryana: Ghoomar.

3.) Tamil Nadu: Bharatnatyam

4.) North India: Kathak

5.) Kerela: Kathakali, Mohiniattam, Padiyani dance.

6.) Andhra Pradesh: Kuchipudi

7.) Manipur: Manipuri and Dol-cholom.

8.) Orissa: Odissi, Ghumura folk dance, Goti folk dance

9.) Assam : Bihu

10.) Himachal Pradesh: Hikal

11.) Bihar: Chhau, Karma/ Munda

12.) Gujrat: Garba, Raas, Padhar, Tippani

13.) Chattisgarh: Panthi

14.) Karnataka: Yakshagana (classical dance drama) and Dollu Kunitha

15.) Kashmir: Dumhal

16.) Maharashtra: Pavri Nach

17.) Punjab: Bhangra, Giddha

Famous Indian Dancers:

a) Dr. Padma Subrahmanyam: related with Bharatnatyam.

b) Yamini Purna Tilaka Krishnamurthy alias Yamini Krishnamurthy: related with Bharatnatyam.

c) Mallika Sarabhai: related with Bharatnatyam and Kuchipudi.

d) Sonal Mansingh: related with Odissi.

e) Birju Maharaj: related with Kathak.

f) Chitra Vishweswaran: related with Bharatnatyam.

g) Anita Ratnam: related with Kathakli, Mohiniattam and Bharatnatyam.

United Nations:

UN was founded in 24^th October 1945 after World War II to replace League of Nations, to stop wars between countries and to promote peace and co-operation among member nations.

With the addition of Montenegro on 28^th June 2006, there are currently 192 member states of UN. There are six official languages used in UN namely Arabic, Chinese(Mandarin), English, French, Russian and Spanish.

UN has primarily six principal organs:

a) General Assembly: Headquarter at New York City

b) Security Council: Headquarter at New York City . Five Permanent members of Security Council are France, China, United Kingdom, USA and Russia. The Security Council consists of 15 member states with 5 of them being Permanent member while the remaining 10 are non-permanent members. The ten non-permanent seats are held for two-year terms. Currently ten non-permanent members are Austria, Bosnia & Herzegovina, Brazil, Gabon, Japan, Lebanon, Mexico, Nigeria, Turkey and Uganda. The five permanent members have veto powers.

c) The Economic and Social Council: Headquarter at New York City. It has 54 members.

d) The Secretariat: Headquarter at New York City. UN Secretariat is headed by Secretary General.

List of Secretary Generals:

i) Trygve Lie (Norway): 1946-1952

ii) Dag Hammarskjold (Sweden): 1953-1961 (Died while in office).

iii) U Thant (Burma or Myanmmar): 1961-1972 (first Asian)

iv) Kurt Waldheim (Austria): 1972-82

v) Javier Perez de Cuellar (Peru): 1982-92 (first from American continent)

vi) Boutros Boutros Ghali (Egypt): 1992-97 (first from Africa)

vii) Kofi Annan (Ghana) : 1997-2007

viii) Ban-ki-Moon (South Korea): 2007 – current

e) International Court of Justice at headquarter at Hague (in Netherlands)

f) United Nations Trusteeship council (Currently inactive).

Other prominent UN agencies are

i) World Health Organization (WHO) headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland.

ii) World Food Program headquarters at Rome.

iii) United Nations International Children Emergency Fund (UNICEF) headquarters at New York.

iv) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) headquarters at Rome.

v) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) headquarters at Vienna, Austria.

vi) International labour Organization (ILO) headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland.

vii) World Bank headquarters at Washington D.C. Current head is Robert Zoellick.

viii) International monetary Fund (IMF) headquarters at Washington D.C. Current head is Dominique Stauss-Kahn.

ix) United nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) headquarters at Paris.

x) World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) headquarters at Madrid, Spain.

xi) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) headquarters at Montreal, Canada.

Currencies of Prominent Countries:

Afghanistan: Afghani

Argentina: Austral and Argentinian neuvo Peso (previously it was Peso).

Australia: Australian Dollar

Austria: Euro

Bangladesh: Taka

Belarus: Belarussian Rouble

Belgium: Euro

Bhutan: Ngultrum (Indian rupee is also used).

Brazil: Real

Cambodia: Riel

Canada: Canadian Dollar

China: Yuan Renminbi

Cuba: Cuban Peso

Cyprus: Euro

Czech republic: Czech Koruna

Denmark: Danish Krone

Egypt: Egyptian Pound

Finland: Euro

France: Euro

Germany: Euro

Ghana: Cedi

Greece: Euro

Greenland: Danish krone

Hong-Kong: Hong-kong dollar

Hungary: Forint

Indonesia: Rupiah

Iran: Iranian Rial

Iraq: Iraqi Dinar

Iceland: Euro

Israel: Shekel

Italy: Euro

Japan: Yen

N.Korea: North Korean Won

S.Korea: South Korean Won

Kuwait: Kuwaiti Dinar

Luxembourg: Euro

Malaysia: Ringgit (Malaysian dollar)

Maldives: Rufiyaa

Mauritius: Mauritius Rupee

Mexico: Mexican new Peso

Monaco: Euro

Morocco: Morocco Dirham

Myanmar: Kyat

Nauru: Australian Dollar

Nepal: Nepalese Rupee

Netherland: Euro

New Zealand: New Zealand Dollar

Norway: Norwegian Krone

Oman: Oman Riali

Pakistan: Pakistani Rupee

Paraguay: Guarani

Peru: Inti and new Sol

Philipines: Phillipines Peso

Poland: new Zloty

Portugal: Euro

Puerto Rico: US Dollar

Qatar: Qatari Rial

Russian Federation: Russian Federation Rouble

Saudi Arabia: Saudi Riyal

Singapore: Singapore Dollar

South Africa: Rand

Spain: Euro

Sri Lanka: sri Lankan Rupee

Sudan: Sudanese Pound

Sweden: Swedish Krona

Switzerland: swiss Franc

Thailand: baht

Turkey: New Turkish lira

United Arab Emirates: UAE Dirham

United kingdom: Pound Sterling

Uruguay: Uruguayan Peso

Venezuela: Bolivar Fuerte

Zimbabwe: US Dollar

More GK

1. Which is the oldest parliamentary democracy in the world? : Great Britain

2. What is the holy book of Parsis called? : The Zend Avesta

3. Which city was founded by Alexander the Great in Egypt? : Alexandria

4. Who was known as Maid Of Orleans? : Joan of Arc

5. What is the Japanese parliament called? : Diet

6. Who was the German-Jewish girl who hid in an Amsterdam attic during WW II and wrote a diary which later became famous? : Anne Frank

7. Which Roman emperor build Byzantium?: Constantine

8. Which is the largest pyramid?

The Great Pyramid was built for King Cheops (khufu), the second king of the IV Dynasty

9. After which Florentine explorer was America named? : Amerigo Vespucci

10. In which century was Lord Buddha born?: 6^th Century BC (around 560 BC)

11. Which famous Englishman was killed in the Battle of Trafalgar?: Admiral Lord Nelson

12. Who discovered the electron? : Sir J J Thompson

13. Which is the longest bone in the human body?: The femure, the thigh bone

14. At which temperature do both the Centigrade and Fahrenheit show the same reading?: -40C equals -40F

15. Who invented the bifocal lens?: Benjamin Franklin

16. Why we do not feel pains to cut our nails?: Nails are not connected to cartilages or blood vessels. Hence, there is no pain felt when we cut nails.

17. Who invented the jet engine?: Sir Frank Wittle of England in 1973.

18. What is Mach Number? : The ratio of speed of the body to the speed of the sound under similar conditions.

19. What is the scientific name for study of handwriting?: Graphology

20. What causes an object to look black?

When the radiation falling on an object is fully absorbed, the object appears black.

21. Who discovered insulin? : Sir Frederick Grant Banting and J J R Macleod

22. Which element has the highest boiling point?: Tantalum, around 6000C

23. Why does a tennis ball bounce higher on hills than on plains?

The gravitational pull in the hills is less than that of in the plains.

24. Which planet has the biggest satellite?: Saturn’s seventh, known as Titan (diameter 5680 km)

25. Which is the most common of all the metals in the earth’s crust? : Aluminum, 8.13%

25. What is the source of caviar?: It is made by salting the roe of sturgeon

26. What is herpetology? : Study of reptiles

27. What is an aardvark?: An ant-eating animal

28. From which plant is morphine obtained?: Opium poppy

29. Who discovered the cause of malaria?: Roland Ross

30. How do we term plants specially adapted to capture and digest insects?: An insectivorous

31. To which family of plants does the apple belong?: The rose family

32. In which country is tea first believed to have been cultivated?: South China

33. What is known as ‘vegetable gold’?: Saffron

34. Which vegetable contains the most iron?: Spinach, 100gm of which 2.2gm is iron

35. To which botanical family does the onion belong?: The lily family (allium cepa)

36. From which tree is quinine obtained?: Cinchona tree

37. Marie Curie was awarded the Nobel Prize twice. In which categories did she win them?

Physics 1903 (radioactivity) and Chemistry 1911 (metallic radiation)

38. Which scientist received Nobel Prizes for both Chemistry and Peace?

Linus Pauling

39. Who invented the vacuum flask?: James Dewar (U.K.) in 1892

40. With which important invention is the name of Leeuwenhoek associated? : The microscope

41. Which Russian born American is so famous for research connected with television that he has been described as ‘the father of modern television’?

Vladimir Zworykin

42. The first words to be spoken over a telephone were: “Mr. Watson, come here, I want you”, who spoke them?

Alexander Graham Bell (1847-1922) to his assistant on 10^th March 1876.

43. When the indicator methyl orange is introduced in an alkaline substances what colour does it become?

Yellow

44. What is generally considered to be the forerunner of chemistry?: Alchemy

45. What branch of chemistry is concerned with carbon compounds?: Organic Chemistry

46. Of what is the molecule of ozone composed?: 3 oxygen atoms

47. What is the different of aluminium and aluminum? : No difference at all

48. Name the famous diplomat who proved that lightning is a form of electricity?: Benjamin Franklin

49. Name the three men involved in the first voyage to the Moon? : Neil Armstrong, Edwin Aldrin and Michael Collins

50. Who propounded the laws of planetary motion?: Johannes Kepier, German astronomer.

51. Which planet has the largest number of moons?: Saturn

52. What is another name for an asteroid?: Planetoid

53. What is an angstrom?
A unit of length equal to 1/10^th of a millimicron or 10 millionth of a millimeter.

54. How long is a nautical mile?: 1853m or 1.85km

55. Who founded in 300 B.C., a school of mathematics is Alexandria in ancient Egypt?: Euclid

More GK

The first Prime minister of Bangladesh was: Mujibur Rehman

The longest river in the world is: the Nile

The longest highway in the world is: the Trans-Canada

The longest highway in the world has a length of About: 8000 km

The highest mountain peak in the world is: Mount Everest(8848 m)

The country that accounts for nearly one third of the total teak production of the world is: Myanmar

The biggest desert in the world is: the Sahara desert

The largest coffee growing country in the world is: Brazil

The country also known as “country of Copper” is: Zambia

The name given to the border which separates Pakistan and Afghanistan is: Durand line

The river Volga flows out into: the Caspian Sea

The coldest place on the earth is Verkoyansk in Siberia

The country which ranks second in terms of land area is: Canada

The largest Island in the Mediterranean sea is: Sicily

The river Jordan flows out into the Dead sea

The biggest delta in the world is: the Sunderbans

The capital city that stands on the river Danube is: Belgrade

The Japanese call their country as: Nippon

The length of the English channel is: 564 kilometres

The world’s oldest known city is: Damascus

The city which is also known as the City of Canals is: Venice

The country in which river Wangchu flows is Myanmar

The biggest island of the world is: Greenland

The city which is the biggest centre for manufacture of automobiles in the world is: Detroit, USA

The country which is the largest producer of manganese in the world is: USA

The country which is the largest producer of rubber in the world is: Malaysia

The country which is the largest producer of tin in the world is: Malaysia

The river which carries maximum quantity of water into the sea is: the Mississippi

The city which was once called the `Forbidden City’ was: Peking

The country called the Land of Rising Sun is: Japan

Mount Everest was named after Sir George Everest

The active volcano Vesuvius is located in Italy

The country known as the Sugar Bowl of the world is: Cuba

The length of the Suez Canal is 162.5 kilometers

The lowest point on earth is the coastal area is: Dead sea

The Gurkhas are the original inhabitants of Nepal

The largest ocean of the world is: the Pacific ocean

The largest bell in the world is: the Tsar Kolkol at Kremlin, Moscow

The biggest stadium in the world is: the Strahov Stadium, Prague

The world’s largest diamond producing country is: South Africa

Australia was discovered by James Cook

The first Governor General of Pakistan is: Mohammed Ali Jinnah

Dublin is situated at the mouth of river Liffey

The earlier name of New York city was New Amsterdam

The Eifel tower was built by Alexander Eiffel

The Red Cross was founded by Jean Henri Durant

The country which has the greatest population density is Monaco

The national flower of Britain is Rose

Niagara Falls was discovered by Louis Hennepin

The national flower of Italy: Lily

The national flower of China is Narcissus

The permanent secretariat of the SAARC is located at Kathmandu

The gateway to the Gulf of Iran is Strait of Hormuz

The first Industrial Revolution took place in England

World Environment Day is observed on 5th June

The First Republican President of America was George Washington

The country famous for Samba dance is Brazil

The name of Alexander’s horse was Beucephalus

Singapore was founded by Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles

The famous British one-eyed Admiral was Nelson

The earlier name of Sri Lanka was Ceylon

The UNO was formed in the year 1945

UNO stands for United Nations Organization

The independence day of South Korea is celebrated on 15th August

`Last Judgment’ was the first painting of famous Italian painter: Michelangelo

Paradise Regained was written by John Milton

The first President of Egypt was Mohammed Nequib

The first man to reach North Pole was Robert Peary

The most famous painting of Pablo Picasso was Guermica

The primary producer of newsprint in the world is Canada

The first explorer to reach the South Pole was Cap. Ronald Amundson

The person who is called the father of modern Italy is G.Garibaldi

World literacy day is celebrated on 8th September

The founder of modern Germany is Bismarck

The country known as the land of the midnight sun is Norway

The place known as the Roof of the world is Tibet

The founder of the Chinese Republic was San Yat Sen

The first Pakistani to receive the Nobel Prize was Abdul Salam

The first woman Prime Minister of Britain was Margaret Thatcher

The first Secretary General of the UNO was Trygve Lie

The sculptor of the statue of Liberty was Frederick Auguste Bartholdi

The port of Baku is situated in Azerbaijan

John F Kennedy was assassinated by Lee Harry Oswald

The largest river in France is Lore

The Queen of England who married her brother-in-law was Catherine of Aragon

The first negro to be awarded the Nobel Peace Prize was Ralph Johnson Bunche

The principal export of Jamaica is Sugar

New York is popularly known as the city of Skyscrapers

Madagascar is popularly known as the Island of Cloves

The country known as the Land of White Elephant is Thailand

The country known as the Land of Morning Calm is Korea

The country known as the Land of Thunderbolts is Bhutan

The highest waterfalls in the world is the Salto Angel Falls, Venezuela

The largest library in the world is the United States Library of Congress, Washington DC

India’s National Dairy Research Institute’ is located at: Hyderabad

Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Pakistan Papers’: Janardan Thakur

Arjun Munda has taken over as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand

Which of the following is no more in the small savings schemes? Kisan Vikas Patra

The country readmitted to the Commonwealth recently: Pakistan

Who is India’s first Grand Master in Chess?: Koneru Humpy

The age of a tree can be determined by:Counting the annual growth rings of its stem

Which one of the following is essentially a solo dance ?: Mohiniattam

The deepest oceanic trench Mariana is located in: Pacific Ocean

During the Mughal period, which one of the followingwere the first to come to India as traders: Portuguese

The term Punter is associated with the game of: Horse Racing

The system of Proportionate Representation is used in the election for the: President of India

Which one of the following is available in the sea in plenty and is given to the patient suffering from a deficiency disease “Goitre”? Iodine

How many bones are there in human body?: 206

The headquarters of the ILO are at: Geneva

The drama King Lear was written by: William Shakespeare

What is the other name of India mentioned in our Constitution ? Bharat

Which of the following places is associated with Jainism?: Pavapuri

Deficiency of which of the following causes knock-knee, bow legs and pigeon chest in children: Vitamin D

Blood is filtered by which pair of organs: Kidneys

With which bank is Noble Laureate Mohammad Younus associated: Grameen Bank

Football World Cup of 2010 is going to be held in: South Africa

Which Indian Cricketer is nicknamed “Haryana Hurricane”: Kapil Dev

The term ‘Eagle’ is associated with: Golf

Punchline of ‘YES Bank’: Experience are expertise

New Punchline of Dabur is: Celebrate Life

‘Let your heart fly’ is associated with: Indian Airlines

‘Big Bazaar’ and ‘Food Bazaar’ are owned by: Pantaloon Retail

‘We understand your world” is the punchline of HDFC Bank

Branded diesel ‘Turbojet’ belongs to : HPCL

Popular Whisky brand ‘Johnny Walker’ belongs to company: DIAGEO

‘The future of Automobile’ is the punchline of: Mercedes Benz

Electrolux, world’s largest home appliance company belongs to : Sweden

‘Honours yours Trust’ is the punchline of bank: UCO Bank

Hindi Business Channel ‘Awaaz’ is owned by: CNBC TV 18

Ashok Leyland company belongs to industrial group: Hinduja

HSBC Bank holds stakes in Indian Bank: AXIS Bank

‘Delighting you always’ is the punchline of Canon

AC Manufacturer Voltas belongs to group: Tata

SBI’s rank on the list of World’s top Bank is 80

Hindi News Channel ‘Channel 7’ belongs to group: Dainik Jagran

Spencers supermarket is owned by group: RPG

‘Inspiring Confidence’ is the tagline of Bajaj

‘Putting news first’ is the punchline of news channel: BBC

Amitabh Bachchan is the brand ambassador of this Jewellery Brand: D’dmas

Promoter of Optical Storage Maker ‘Moser Baer’: Deepak Puri

Global telecom and networking company Cable and Wireless has tied up with this Indian Company: VSNL

The punchline ‘Let there be light’ is associated with: Hindustan Times

‘Uncommon Sense’ adline is associated with: Marico Industries

Domestic Rating Agency CRISIL has been acquired by: Standard & Poor

Walton family is promoter of which famous Company: Walmart

“India’s International Bank” is tagline of: Bank Of Baroda

The company which has acquired mobile handset business of Siemens(Germany): BenQ

“Hindi at its best” is associated with: Navbharat Times

‘Petronas’ is one of the Petroluem Company based in: Malaysia

The foreign tobacco company which holds equity stakes in ITC is: British American Tobacco

Two confectionary brands ‘Maha Lacto’ and ‘Eclair’ are owned by company: Nutrine

‘An Indian Multinational’ is adline associated with: Videocon

The Times of India is set to launch a 24 hour news channel in alliance with this international media entity: Reuters

Essar Steel is promoted by: Ruia family

Prime Minister of England when India got its independence: Clement Atlee

The person who has been given the sobriquet “Little Corporal”: Napoleon Bonaparte

Mughal ruler who started a new religion “Din-e-Elahi”: Akbar

The country which has been admitted to G-20: Uruguay

The city which has the sobriquet “ Paris of Latin America”: Buenos Aires

In Greek Mythology, the father of Pegasus(the winged horse): Poseidon

The airline which has common man as its lucky mascot: Air Deccan

France Telecom sold its 9.9 % stake in this cellular service company: BPL Telecom

The company which has entered into branded filter coffee segment under the name Mr. Bean Coffee Junction: Tata Coffee

HB written on the HB pencils stands for: Hard Bond

Corporate Tax is levied on : Income of Companies

I was created by Bobby Kooka in 1938. Who am I?: Air India’s Maharaja

This European Bank holds 6 % stake in HCL technologies: Deutsche Bank

The company which owns the brand “Vicks Vaporub”: P & G

“The Power on your side” is the punchline of : Bajaj Allianz

“Going beyond Expectations” is the punchline of: Malaysia Airlines

Footwear company Aero Club owns this brand: WoodLand

The biggest airport in the world(area): King Fahd International Airport, Riyadh(Saudi Arabia)

Nobel Prize was started in this year: 1901

Anatoly Karpov(Russia) is associated with: Chess

“Statue of Liberty” was a gift to US from this country: France

“Man of Destiny” was the sobriquet given to: Napoleon Bonaparte

UN day is celebrated on: 24^th October

The emblem of UN is: The Olive branch

Owner of Star T.V Network is: Rupert Murdoch

“Delighting You Always” is the punchline of: Canon

Kolkata based clubs Mohan Bagan and East Bengal are owned by this businessman: Vijay Mallaya

Chik and Fairever brands are owned by this company: Cavin Care

Headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is at: Vienna, Austria

Headquarters of International Labour Organization(ILO): Geneva

Headquarters of UNICEF: New York City

Headquarters of UNESCO: Paris

Headquarters of WHO: Geneva

Headquarters of International Monetary Fund(IMF): Washington D.C

Headquarters of Food & Agriculture Organization(FAO): Rome

Headquarters of North Atlantic Treaty Organization(NATO): Brussels, Belgium

Headquarters of Organization of Petroluem Exporting Countries(OPEC): Vienna

Headquarters of European Union: Brussels, Belgium

Headquarters of Interpol: Paris

Number of countries who are members of OPEC: 13

Number of countries who are members of NATO: 26

Number of countries who are members of UN: 192

Number of countries who are members of WTO: 148

Home country of sports company Adidas: Germany

The baseline of Bombay Stock Exchange Limited is: “The Edge is Efficiency”

Single largest share holder in Idea Cellular is: AV Birla Group

Food Brand “Nature Fresh” is owned by this company: Cargill

The company which owns apparel brand “John Player”: ITC

BATA, the footwear company originally hails from: Czech Republic

The name of space shuttle in which Kalpana Chawla died: Columbia

The richest woman of India and owner of Biocon International: Kiran Majumdar Shaw

“My Life” is a famous work of: Bill Clinton

Akio Morita is associated with the establishment of: Sony Corporation

Coldarin is a famous drug from: Johnson & Johnson

The chairperson of National Commission for Women India is: Girija Vyas

The FDI limit in the domestic airlines has been increased to: 49 %

“Live your Dreams” is the punchline of: Polaris Software

Founder of Amazon.com: Jeff Bezos in 1994

“Travel & Living” is a 24 hour channel from the stable of: Discovery Channel

Ryder Cup is associated with: Golf

Alcatel is a telecom major that hails from: France

“Between Hope and History” is a famous work of: Bill Clinton

Sales Tax is an example of: Indirect tax

India’s first indigenously built submarine: INS Shalki

The number of pairs of Chromosomes in Human Beings is: 23

Theosophical Society Of India was founded by: Annie Beasant

The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament can be: 6months

India’s first Corporatized port is at: Ennore(near Chennai)

“Swarmala Entertainment” a music company is a joint venture between: BMG & Sony

Strepsils, Clearsil drugs are from: Boots Piramal Health Care

Nivea Brand is owned by: Beiersdorf

World’s largest Spirits Company: DIAGEO

Spiritual Channel Jagran is promoted by: Zee TV

Nicklodeon a channel for kids belongs to: Viacom Inc. Media Group

Company which is largest supplier of HIV AIDS drug: Glaxo

Brand Ambassdor of Gillette: David Beckham

“Blue Box”, “Green Box” are terms related with: Agricultural subsidies in WTO

India’s first LNG Terminal has been established at: Dahej(Gujrat)

Youngest Parliamentarian in new Lok Sabha is: Sachin Pilot

“Straight From the Heart” is the autobiography of: Kapil Dev

Jammu & Kashmir is associated with this article: Article 370

“The Golden Gate” is a book authored by: Vikram Seth

Least Populous state of India is: Sikkim

Niblic and Bogey are the term associated with: Golf

Shungulu Committee is related to: IIM fee cut issue

Qutub Minar was built by: Started by Qutub-din-Aibak and finished by Iltutmish

The person who coin the term “Ambush Marketing”: Jerry Welsh

Indian State with highest population density: West Bengal

Some more Punchlines

Toshiba: Choose Freedom

Walmart: Always low prices. Always.

Haier: Inspired living

JVC: The perfect Experience

Sony: Like no other

Samsung: Imagine the possibilities

Hyundai: Drive your way

Honda: The power of dreams

Louis Phillipe: The upper Crest

Peter England: Honestly Impressive

BMW: The ultimate Driving Machine

TCS: Beyond the obvious

Star Sports: We know your game

Infosys: Powered by Intellect, driven by values

Apple Macintosh: Think different

NDTV Profit: News you can use

Servo: 100 % performance. Every time.

Speed: High Performance Petrol.

ONGC: Making tomorrow brighter

Air Canada: A breath of fresh air

British Airways: The way to fly.

At &T: Your world. Delivered

Standard Chartered Bank: Leading the way in Asia, Africa and the Middle East

Sun Microsystems: The network is the Computer

DELL: Yours is here

LEE: The jeans that built America

IBM: On demand Business, in demand people

FIAT: Driven by Passion

Volkswagen: The Car

Accenture: High Performance, delivered.

HP-Invent: Everything is possible

Windows XP: Do more with less

Microsoft: Your Potential Our Passion

Amazon.com: … and you are done

MRF Tyres: Tyres with muscles

Chevron Corporation: Human Energy

IBP: Pure Bhi, Poora Bhi

GAIL: Gas and beyond

EPZ stands for: Export Processing Zone

Kelkar Committee related to: Direct Taxes

Chairman of Britannia Industries: Mr. N.N. Wadia

Newspaper started by Jawaharlal Nehru: National Herald

“Euthanasia”(mercy killing) has been allowed in: The Netherlands

Water body between India and Sri Lanka: Palk Strait

Hottest Planet of Solar System: Venus

Source of Sun’s Energy: Nuclear Fusion

Brightest Planet in Solar System: Venus

Scientific Study of birds is known as : Orinthology

Plaster of Paris is made by partial dehydration of: Gypsum Salt

Guru of Shivaji: Ramdas

Father of History: Herodotus

The statement “Man is born free but he is always in chain” is given by: Rousseau

Bull-fighting is national game of: Spain

The city which has been given the sobriquet “Eternal City”: Rome

Instrument for measuring the intensity of earthquakes is: Seismograph

Bhopal Gas Tragedy is associated with this gas: Methyl-Iso-Cynate

Indian state which has highest Forest Cover: Madhya Pradesh

WTO was earlier known as: GATT(General Agremment on Tarrifs & Trade)

Unit of measure of Sound level: Decibel

Fountain Pen works on the Principle of: Capilliary Action

India’s highest paid CEO: Mukesh Ambani(25 crores)

UN charter was ratified in 1945 by: 29 nations

Montenegro, 192^nd member of UN is in this continent: Europe

The International Court of Justice is located at: The Hague(Netherlands)

The total number of judges of International Court of Justice is: 15

Water body that connects Red sea with Mediterranean Sea: Suez Canal.

First Indian man to cross English Channel: Mihir Sen

First Indian woman to cross English Channel: Aarti Shah

Planet with maximum number of satellites: Jupiter

Percentage of Earth’s surface covered by India: 2.4 %

Yellow revolution is related with: Oil Seeds

Instrument to measure the relative density of milk: Lactometer

Largest island of the World: Greenland

First Indian Golfer to be ranked in to World 50: Jeev Milkha Singh

Atmospheric Layer which is farthest from the Earth’s surface: Exosphere

Atmospheric Layer which is closest from the Earth’s surface: Troposphere

“Doctrine of Lapse” was initiated by governor-general: Lord Dalhousie

Mahatma Gandhi was given the sobriquet of “Father of nation” by: Rabindranath Tagore

The first session Of Indian national Congress under the president ship of : W.C. Banerjee

Minor Planets revolving between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars are called: Asteroids

First Indian state to have gone under President’s rule: Punjab

The Planet named after The Roman God of agriculture: Saturn

The city known as “Land of Thousand lakes”: Helsinki

Headquarters of International Red Cross at: Geneva

Father of Cell Phone: Martin Cooper

Panchyati Raj comes under the list: State List

World Women’s day is celebrated on: 8^th March

Smallest Republic in World: Nauru

Least densely populated Indian Union territory: Andaman & Nicobar

First traders to reach India were from country: Portugal

First Governor of Reserve bank of India: Osborne Smith

The leader known as “Man of Destiny”: Napoleon Bonaparte

Country in which original version of “Big Boss” aired first: The Netherlands

The controversial “Tehri Dam” is built on: Bhagirathi

Governor-general of India during 1857 uprising: Lord Canning

Country known as “Sugar-bowl of World” is: Cuba

Ex-officio chairman of Planning Commission is: Prime Minister of India

Percentage of Area covered by Pacific Ocean: 35 %

Sakyamuni is the nickname of: Lord Buddha

Newspaper founded By mahatma Gandhi in 1903 in South Africa: Indian Opinion

Personality known as “Saint of Gutters”: Mother Teresa

Practice Questions – Legal Awareness

1. How many organs are there in Central as well as State Government?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

2. Who among the following is the supreme institution of the people?

a) Parliament b) Loksabha c) Rajya Sabha d) Judiciary

3. Who among the following can amend the constitution?

a) The President b) Parliament c) Chief Justice d) Executive

4. Who among the following countries follows the Presidential System?

a) UK b) India c) USA d) Australia

5. Of which house, the members are not directly elected?

a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) None of these

6. “Education” falls under which list?

a) Concurrent List b) Central List c) State list d) None of these

7. Who among the following has the power to impeach the President?

a) Prime Minister b) Lok Sabha c) Chief Justice of India d) Parliament

8. Who elects the Vice-President?

a) President b) Parliament (Two houses) c) Prime Minister d) Cabinet Minister

9. Who has the power to dissolve the Parliament?

a) Prime Minister b) Vice-President c) President d) Chief Justice of India

10. How many members can be nominated by President of India from various fields like the arts, science etc.?

a) 10 b) 2 c) 12 d) 15

11. How many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the President

a) 5 b) 2 c) 10 d) 12

12. Who appoints the members of the planning commission?

a) Prime Minister b) Chief Justice of India c) Vice-President d) The President

13. Who is the ex-officio chairperson of the planning commission?

a) Deputy speakers of Lok Sabha b) President

c) Prime Minister d) Vice-President

14. According to which article, the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the teritory of India?

a) Article 156 b) Article 141 c) Article 260 d) Article 361

15. When was the Supreme court established?

a) 26th Jan. 1950 b) 26th Jan. 1948 c) 26th Jan. 1947 d) 26th Jan. 1949

16. Which commission recommended the reservation of jobs in government services and when?

a) Mandal Commission, 1990 b) Chopra Commission, 1989

c) Shri Krishna Commission, 1952 d) Venkiah Commission, 1990

17. How many Presidents has India had uptil now?

a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 14

18. How many Prime Ministers have been in India until now ?

a) 18 b) 14 c) 12 d) 15

19. What is the legal age for contesting elections in India?

a) 21 b) 25 c) 30 d) 18

20. When did the United Nations adopt “Universal Declaration of Human Right”?

a) 1945 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1950

21. How many fundamental rights have been granted by the Indian constitution?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) 7

22. Under which article can the right to freedom be suspended by the government during an emergency?

a) Article 141 b) Article 40 c) Article 19 d) Article 20

23. By which Amendment act of 1976, were the fundamental duties were introduced?

a) 42nd b) 40th c) 54th d) 48th

24. Which article guarantees to the Indian citizens the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the fundamental Rights?

a) Article 19 b) Article 32 c) Article 141 d) Article 40

25. How many countries are members of the United Nations?

a) 178 b) 180 c) 193 d) 200

26. Who defined Democracy as “the government of the people, by the people, for the people”?

a) George Washington b) Rousseau c) Abraham Lincoln d) Aristotle

27. Who wrote the book “The Prince”?

a) Plato b) Socrates c) Aristotle d) Machiavelli

28. The Glorious Revolution took place in

a) U.S.A. b) France c) England d) Russia

29. The French Revolution took place in which year?

a) 1911 b) 1789 c) 1688 d) 1776

30. How many members of the Security Council have the decision-making capability?

a) 10 b) 5 c) 20 d) 15

31. The President of World Bank is

a) always from a Third World Country

b) always from the U.S.A.

c) always from the U.K.

d) from any country

32. Who was elected president of the Constituent Assembly?

a) Jawahar Lal Nehru b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

c) Sardar Patel d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

33. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee formed in 1946?

a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Sardar Patel

34. How many subjects come under the Union List?

a) 97 subjects b) 47 subjects c) 66 subjects d) 100 subjects

35. How many subjects come under the state list?

a) 97 subjects b) 100 subjects c) 66 subjects d) 47 subjects

36. How many subjects are there in the concurrent list?

a) 47 subjects b) 105 subjects c) 97 subjects d) 66 subjects

37. How many General Elections have been conducted by the Indian Parliament till now?

a) 15 b) 10 c) 11 d) 14

38. What is the strength of Lok Sabha, generally ?

a) 544 b) 552 c) 540 d) 545

39. Which state has the largest Vidhan Sabha? (403 members)

a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat c) Madhya Pradesh d) Uttar Pradesh

40. Who gave the slogan “Garibi Hatao” in 1971 Lok Sabha elections?

a) Indira Gandhi b) Morarji Desai c) Lal Bahadur Shastri d) Charan Singh

41. How many parties are recognised as national parties in India?

a) 4 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6

42. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

a) Prime Minister b) The President

c) Chief Justice of India d) Cabinet Ministers

43. The minimum age required to become the president of India is

a) 25 years b) 30 years c) 35 years d) 40 years

44. Which of the following constitutional amendments was responsible for deleting the right to property from the list of fundamental rights?

a) 43rd amendment b) 44th amendment

c) 52nd amendment d) 48th amendment

45. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following is not one of the main organs of the Government?

a) Bureaucracy b) Judiciary c) Executive d) Legislature

46. What is the minimum age required to become Vice-President of India or Governor of an Indian State?

a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40

47. Which of the following constitutional amendments was responsible for the inclusion of Konkani Manipuri and Nepali languages in the eight schedule of the constitution?

a) 68th Amendment b) 70th Amendment

c) 71st Amendment d) 76th Amendment

48. The maximum duration for which the Presidents office can remain vacant is

a) 1 Month b) 2 Months c) 3 Months d) 6 Months

49. Which of the following represents the minimum age required to become the member of Rajya Sabha?

a) 30 Years b) 35 Years c) 25 Years d) There is no age limit

50. National emergency arising out of war, armed rebellion or external aggression is dealt under.

a) Article 280 b) Article 352 c) Article 356 d) Article 370

51. Which of the following represents the original number of officially recognized languages enchained in the Indian Constitution?

a) 14 b) 16 c) 18 d) 20

52. Which of the following heads the table of precedence of the Government of India?

a) Prime Minister b) Vice-President c) President d) Chief-Justice of India

53. The first speaker of the Lok Sabha was

a) K. M. Munshi b) C D. Deshmukh c) G. V. Mavalankar d) J. J. Kania

54. How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha?

a) 238 b) 242 c) 246 d) 250

55. Who among the following Presidents has also been the speaker of the Lok Sabha?

a) N. Sanjiv Reddy b) R. Venkatraman

c) G. Zail Singh d) Dr. S. D. Sharma

56. Word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the constitution of India with the help of which of the following constitutional amendments?

a) 38th b) 36th c) 44th d) 42nd

57. Which of the following is a Central Government Tax?

a) Income Tax b) Corporation Tax c) Sales Tax d) Octroi

58. Governor is appointed by the

a) Prime Mister b) President

c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Justice of concerned State High Court

59. Which of the following articles of the constitution deals with financial emergency?

a) Article 352 b) Article 356 c) Article 360 d) Article 370

60. Which of the following represents the number of judges in the International Court of Justice?

a) 12 b) 15 c) 18 d) 21

61. From which country, has the fundamental duties of the constitution been borrowed?

a) US b) UK c) Ireland d) Soviet Union

62. From which country has the fundamental rights of the constitution been borrowed?

a) UK b) US c) Soviet Union d) Germany

63. Which article is concerned with the impeachment of the president?

a) Article 51 b) Article 61 c) Article 3 d) Article 21

64. From which country, has the Directive Principles of State Policy been borrowed?

a) Ireland b) US c) Britain d) Germany

65. Which article is related to Citizenship?

a) Article 3 b) Article 21 c) Article 51 A d) Article 32

66. Which Article granted the special status to Jammu & Kashmir?

a) Article 368 b) Article 370 c) Article 110 d) Article 327

67. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

a) President b) Vice-President

c)Prime Minister d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

68. Who was the first Vice-President of India?

a) N. Sanjeev Reddy b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

c) F. Ali Ahmed d) Dr. S. Radhkrishnan

69. How many Rajya Sabha Members are nominated by the President?

a) 12 b) 20 c) 2 d) 5

70. What is the retirement age of the judges of the Supreme Court?

a) 60 b) 62 c) 65 d) 58

71. How many judges are there in the Supreme Court, excluding Chief Justice of India?

a) 15 b) 26 c) 20 d) 25

72. Who appoints the Controller and Auditor General of India?

a) Prime Minister b) President

c) Vice-President d) Chief Election Commissioner

73. Who among the following does not have the right to vote in the parliament?

a) Prime Minister b) Leader of Opposition

c) Attorney General of India d) None of these

74. Who gives the expert legal advice to the Government of India?

a) Attorney General of India b) Chief Justice of India

c) Controller & Auditor General d) None of these

75. Which of the following constitutional amendments is responsible for making “Right to Education” a fundamental right?

a) 97th b) 93rd c) 56th d) 61st

76. Which of the following constitutional amendments is responsible for Panchayti Raj Bill?

a) 72nd b) 56th c) 61st d) 42nd

Practice Questions – Health Awareness

1. Identify the genetic disease from the following

a) Anaemia b) Cholera c) Malaria d) Haemophilia

2. Which disease is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin A?

a) Beri-beri b) Night-Blindness c) Scurvy d) AIDS

3. Which Vitamin do we get while being exposed to sunlight?

a) A b) C c) D d) K

4. Which disease is caused by the deficiency of Iodine?

a) Marasmus b) Goitre c) Kwashiorkor d) Rickets

5. Which disease is caused by the deficiency of Iron?

a) Rickets b) Scurvy c) Beri-beri d) Anaemia

6. Identify the disease which spreads through sexual contact.

a) Syphilis b) Malaia c) Encephalitis d) Ascariasis

7. Which body part malfunctioning results in Diabetes?

a) Liver b) Heart c) Kidney d) Pancreas

8. Which of the following causes Diarrhoea?

a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Virus d) Worms

9. Which of the following causes AIDS?

a) Fungi b)Virus c) Protozoa d) Worms

10. Who among the following is the carrier of plasmodium, which causes Malaria?

a) Pig b) Anopheles Mosquito (female) c) Fly d) Butterfly

11. Which of the following causes Ringworm?

a) Fungi b) Protoza c) Bacteria d) Virus

12. Which of the following food items is rich in Vitamins?

a) Milk b) Orange c) Meat d) Rickets

13. Which Vitamin deficiency leads to Rickets?

a) A b) K c) D d) C

14. Which disease is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B?

a) Rickets b) Beri-beri c) Osteoprosis d) Anaemia

15. Which disease is caused by coming in contact with infected person?

a) Diptheria b) Chicken Pox c) Cold d) Malaria

16. Which among the following is an air-borne disease?

a) Malaria b) Tuberculosis c) AIDS d) Diptheria

17. Which disease is caused by housefly being its carrier?

a) Malaria b) Cholera c) Rabies d) Chicken Pox

18. Which among the following is responsible for tetanus disease?

a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Virus d) Worms

19. Who discovered Penicillin?

a) Sir Issac Newton b) Robert Brown c) Sir Alexander. Fleming d) Greg Mendel

20. Who developed the technique of vaccination?

a) Louis Pasteur b) Edward Jenner

c) Sir Alexander Fleming d) Copernicus

21. Which among the following is caused by air pollution?

a) AIDS b) Malaria c) Bronchitis d) Cholera

22. Whose Oxide mixes with rain to form acid rain?

a) Sulphur b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) Hydrogen

23. What are the components of SMOG?

a) Smoke + Hail b) Smoke + fog

c) Smoke + Vapour d) Smoke + Water Droplets

24. What is the percentage of water in our body weights?

a) 60% b) 90% c) 75% d) 70%

25. Which among the following is caused due to water pollution?

a) Cholera b) Asthma c) Syphilis d) Cold

26. Which gas among the following is responsible for Greenhouse effect?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Argon d) Methane

27. Which element is most responsible for depletion of Ozone layer?

a) Pollution b) Smog c) Chlorofluorocarbons d) Arsenic

28. Who discovered Nucleus in 1831?

a) Sir Alexander Fleming b) Robert Brown

c) Gregory Mendel d) Charles Darwin

29. Which of the following disease is caused due to deficiency of Protein intake?

a) Goitre b) Tuberculosis c) Kwashiorkar d) Beri-beri

30. Which of the Vitamins help in stopping bleeding?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin C

31. In which of the following diseases, the main symptom is loss of body weight?

a) Kwashiorkor b) Ricket c) Scurvy d) Marasmus

32. Vitamin B12 is most useful for combating

a) Anaemia b) Goitre c) Night Blindness d) Rickets

33. Which of the following Vitamins is stored in the liver?

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin E

34. Huntington’s disease is caused by malfunctioning of

a) Kidney b) Brain c) Liver d) Pancreas

35. Which of the following is the maximum source of energy?

a) Fats b) Minerals c) Vitamins d) Proteins

36. Which of the following Proteins help in fighting infections by forming complexes with antigens?

a) Haemoglobin b) Insulin c) Pepsin d) Antibodies

37. Which of the following Proteins is also a hormone?

a) Actin b) Myosin c) Thyroxine d) Collagen

38. Which of the following Vitamins is not in Vitamin B Complex group?

a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin D c) Folic Acid d) Vitamin B12

39. Which Vitamin is found in Cod liver oil?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D

40. Which mineral deficiency leads to muscular cramps?

a) Potassium b) Iron c) Sodium d) Iodine

41. Which of the following minerals helps in clotting of blood?

a) Calcium b) Phosphorus c) Iron d) Iodine

42. Which of the following minerals is essential for building of bones & teeth?

a) Sodium b) Potassium c) Calcium d) Iron

43. Which Vitamin is necessary for proper absorption of Calcium?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin B d) Vitamin D

44. Which Mineral is responsible for regulation of heart-beat?

a) Phosphorus b) Iodine c) Iron d) Potassium

45. Which Mineral is responsible for formation of haemoglobin in R.B.C.?

a) Calcium b) Iron c) Sodium d) Potassium

46. Which Mineral is responsible for formation of thyroxine hormone secreted by thyroid gland?

a) Iron b) Potassium c) Sodium d) Iodine

47. In which form is the roughage present in fruits and vegetables?

a) Cellulose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) Maltose

48. Which of the following diseases occur due to excessive eating?

a) Marasmus b) Heart disease c) Kwashiorkor d) Anaemia

49. How can a Marasmus affected child be cured?

a) Rich Protein diet b) Giving Roughage diet

c)Rich Mineral diet d) Rich Vitamin diet

50. Which vegetable source is the best source of Protein?

a) Milk b) Soyabean c) Fruits d) Vegetables

51. In which part of country will the disease “Goitre” be rarely found?

a) Plains b) Hilly regions c) Coastal Regions d)None of these

52 Which Vitamin deficiency is responsible for causing Dermatitis (Pellagra)?

a) Vitamin B b) Vitamin B5 c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin K

53. What is the scientific name of Vitamin C ?

a) Ascorbic Acid b) Nicotinic Acid c) Retinal d) Riboflavin

54. Which of the these disease has symptoms of bleeding gums and loosening of teeth?

a) Beri-beri b) Scurvy c) Pellagra d) Anemia

55. Which of the following Vitamins is fat-soluble?

a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin C c) Folic Acid d) Vitamin B-Complex

56. The diseases which are present from the time of birth are called?

a) Acquired Disease b) Congenital Disease

c) Infections Disease d) Non-Communicable Diseases

57. The biological agents like bacteria which cause disease are called?

a) Pathogens b) Antibodies c) Vaccines d) None of these

58. Which scientist first proved that pathogen were responsible for spreading disease?

a) Louis Pasteur b) Edward Jenner

c) Robert Koch d) Alexander Fleming

59. Which of the following is given instantly to Cholera infected patient?

a) Streptomycin b) ORS (Oral rehydration Salts)

c) Antitoxin d) Vaccination

60. Which of the following is a contagious disease?

a) Leprosy b) Tuberculosis c) Tetanus d) Polio

61. Which of the following diseases begins with recurrent shivering chills and fever?

a) Polio b) Mumps c) Small-Pox d) Malaria

62. Which of the following diseases is caused by Filarial Worm?

a) Ascariasis b) Taeniasis c) Elephantiasis d) Measles

Answer Key (Legal Awareness)

1) b 2) a 3) b 4) c 5) b

6) a 7) d b 9) c 10) c

11) b 12) d 13) c 14) b 15) a

16) a 17) d 18) a 19) b 20) c

21) d 22) c 23) a 24) b 25) c

26) c 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d

31) b 32) d 33) a 34) a 35) c

36) a 37) d 38) b 39) d 40) a

41) d 42) b 43) c 44) b 45) a

46) c 47) c 48) d 49) a 50) b

51) c 52) c 53) c 54) d 55) a

56) d 57) a 58) b 59) c 60) b

61) d 62) b 63) b 64) a 65) a

66) b 67) b 68) d 69) a 70) c

71) d 72) b 73) c 74) a 75) b

76) a

Answer Key (HEALTH AWARENESS)

1) d 2) b 3) c 4) b 5) d

6) a 7) d a 9) b 10) b

11) a 12) b 13) c 14) b 15) b

16) b 17) b 18) a 19) c 20) b

21) c 22) a 23) b 24) d 25) a

26) d 27) c 28) b 29) c 30) b

31) d 32) a 33) c 34) b 35) a

36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c

41) a 42) c 43) d 44) a 45) b

46) d 47) a 48) b 49) a 50) b

51) c 52) b 53) a 54) b 55) a

56) b 57) a 58) c 59) b 60) a

61) d 62) c